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3 years ago

You find a micrometer (a tool used to

Physics

1 answer:

MakcuM [25]3 years ago

3 0

Explanation:

A micrometer is a measuring device or an instrument which is used to measure very minute measurements very accurately and precisely. It is mathematical tool used to provide accurate measurement for any mechanical components.

Now, if the micrometer that I have found is badly bent, it would provide faulty or wrong measurements both in terms of precision and accuracy when compared to a high quality meter stick.

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During a tornado in 2008 the Peachtree Plaza Westin Hotel in downtown Atlanta suffered damage. Suppose a piece of glass dropped

Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

Time = t = 6.62 s

Explanation:

Given data:

Height = h = 215 m

Initial velocity = $v_{i}$ = 0 m/s

gravitational acceleration = g = 9.8 m/s²

Time = t = ?

According to second equation of motion

$h = v_{i}t + \frac{1}{2}gt^{2}$

As initial velocity is zero, So the first term of right hand side of above equation equal to zero.

$h = \frac{1}{2}gt^{2}$

t² = $\frac{2h}{g}$

t = $\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g} }$

t = $\sqrt{\frac{(2)(215) }{9.8} }$

t = 6.62 s

3 0

3 years ago

A ball rolls at a speed of 6cm/s. How far does the ball roll in 40 seconds ? ____cm

sesenic [268]

Answer:

240cm

Explanation:

Speed = 6cm/s

Time = 40 seconds

Speed= distance/time

6cm/s = distance/40seconds

Distance = 6×40

Distance = 240cm

Hence, in 40 seconds, the ball must have rolled the distance of 240cm

8 0

3 years ago

According to the Standard Model of Particle Physics, a neutrino is a type of

Liono4ka [1.6K]

The standard model of particle physics classifies all known particles and documents three of the fundamental forces. A neutrino is an almost massless sub-atomic particle with no charge that only interacts with matter very weakly. Neutrinos are classified as fermions which means they have half-integer intrinsic spin.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .