Answer:
warning signs
Explanation:
give directions on your surroundings
The answer & explanation for this question is given in the attachment below.
Answer:The distinction between a permanent magnet and an electromagnet is essentially one in how the field is created, not the properties of the field afterwards. So electromagnets still have two poles, still attract ferromagnetic materials, and still have poles that repel other like poles and attract unlike poles.
Explanation:
Answer:
a) v = +/- 0.515 m/s
b) x = -0.098164 m
c) v = +/- 1.005 m/s
Explanation:
Given:
The relationship for the acceleration is given as follows:
a = - (0.1 + sin(x/b))
Where, b = 0.98
- IVP is v = 1 m/s @ x = 0
Find:
(a) the velocity of the particle when x = -1 m
(b) the position where the velocity is maximum
(c) the maximum velocity.
Solution:
- We will compute the velocity by integrating a by dt.
a = v*dv / dx = - (0.1 + sin(x/0.98))
- Separate variables:
v*dv = - (0.1 + sin(x/0.98)) . dx
-Integrate from v = 1 m/s to v and @ x = 0 to x:
0.5*(v^2) = - (0.1*x - 0.98*cos(x/0.8)) - 0.98 + 0.5
0.5*v^2 = 0.98*cos(x/0.98) - 0.1*x - 0.48
- Evaluate at, x = -1
0.5*v^2 = 0.98 cos(-1/0.98) + 0.1 -0.48
v = sqrt (0.2651155)
v = +/- 0.515 m/s
- v = v_max when a = 0. Set the given expression to zero and solve for x:
-0.1 = sin(x/0.98)
x = -0.98*0.1002
x = -0.098164 m
- Hence now evaluate velocity through the derived expression:
v^2 = 1.96 cos(-0.098164/0.98) -0.96 -0.2*-0.098164
v = sqrt (1.0098)
v = +/- 1.005 m/s
Answer:
efficiency = 0.71999 < 0.78148
efficiency = 0.7999 ≈ 0.78148
Explanation:
given data
Hot reservoir Temp Th = 1350 K
Cold reservoir Temp Tc = 295 K
heat transfer rate = 150,000 kJ/h
solution
first we get here maximum possible efficiency that is express as
maximum possible efficiency = 1 - 
..........1
put here value and we get
maximum possible efficiency = 1 - 
maximum possible efficiency = 0.78148
and
efficiency = 
.................2
here Qin = 
= 41.667
so put here value in equation 2 we get
efficiency = 
efficiency = 0.71999 < 0.78148
and
efficiency = 
efficiency = 0.7999 ≈ 0.78148
claim might be true or not because there always be looser
