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ruslelena [56]
3 years ago
14

Find the volume of water displaced and position of center of buoyancy for a wooden block of width 2.5m and of depth 1.5m. When i

t floats horizontally, in water. The density of wooden block is 650 kg/m3 and its length óm
​
Engineering
1 answer:
Lostsunrise [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The mass density of a fluid is 980 kg/m3. ... If the specific gravity of a liquid is 0.79, determine its mass density and specific ... A wooden block of size 1m x 0.5m x 0.4m is floating in water with 0.4 m side ...

Explanation:

Credit to  sugantipandit7

https://brainly.in/question/43010943?tbs_match=3

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I am trying to make a vacuum cannon but all I can use to get out the air is a speed pump to give air to bicycles. I need to make
Mrrafil [7]

We can actually deduce here that making a airtight seal will take different format. You can:

  • Use an epoxy-resin to create an airtight seal
  • Create a glass-metal airtight seal
  • Make a ceramic-metal airtight seal.

<h3>What is an airtight seal?</h3>

An airtight seal is actually known to be a seal or sealing that doesn't permit air or gas to pass through. Airtight seal are usually known as hermetic seal. They are usually applied to airtight glass containers but the advancement in technology has helped to broaden the materials.

We can see that epoxy-resin can used to create an airtight seal. They create airtight seals to copper, plastics, stainless steels, etc.

When making glass-metal airtight seal, the metal should compress round the solidified glass when it cools.

Learn more about airtight seal on brainly.com/question/14977167

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6 0
1 year ago
Describe the cycle that purifies drinking water. 40 points
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]
Umm the Water cycle sorry I’m trying
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A seamless pipe 800mm diameter contains a fluid under a pressure of 2N/mm2. If the permissible tensile stress is 100N/mm2, find
Bad White [126]

Answer:

8 mm

Explanation:

Given:

Diameter, D = 800 mm

Pressure, P = 2 N/mm²

Permissible tensile stress, σ = 100 N/mm²

Now,

for the pipes, we have the relation as:

\sigma=\frac{\textup{PD}}{\textup{2t}}

where, t is the thickness

on substituting the respective values, we get

100=\frac{\textup{2\times800}}{\textup{2t}}

or

t = 8 mm

Hence, the minimum thickness of pipe is 8 mm

3 0
3 years ago
A large plate is fabricated from a steel alloy that has a plane strain fracture toughness of 55 MPa √m (50 ksi √in.). If, during
astra-53 [7]

Answer:

0.024 m = 24.07 mm

Explanation:

1) Notation

\sigma_c = tensile stress = 200 Mpa

K = plane strain fracture toughness= 55 Mpa\sqrt{m}

\lambda= length of a surface crack (Variable of interest)

2) Definition and Formulas

The Tensile strength is the ability of a material to withstand a pulling force. It is customarily measured in units (F/A), like the pressure. Is an important concept in engineering, especially in the fields of materials and structural engineering.

By definition we have the following formula for the tensile stress:

\sigma_c=\frac{K}{Y\sqrt{\pi\lambda}}   (1)

We are interested on the minimum length of a surface that will lead to a fracture, so we need to solve for \lambda

Multiplying both sides of equation (1) by Y\sqrt{\pi\lambda}

\sigma_c Y\sqrt{\pi\lambda}=K   (2)

Sequaring both sides of equation (2):

(\sigma_c Y\sqrt{\pi\lambda})^2=(K)^2  

\sigma^2_c Y^2 \pi\lambda=K^2   (3)

Dividing both sides by \sigma^2_c Y^2 \pi we got:

\lambda=\frac{1}{\pi}[\frac{K}{Y\sigma_c}]^2   (4)

Replacing the values into equation (4) we got:

\lambda=\frac{1}{\pi}[\frac{55 Mpa\sqrt{m}}{1.0(200Mpa)}]^2 =0.02407m

3) Final solution

So the minimum length of a surface crack that will lead to fracture, would be 24.07 mm or more.

7 0
4 years ago
The annual inventory cost C for a manufacturer is given below, where Q is the order size when the inventory is replenished. Find
Nataly_w [17]

The change in annual cost when Q is increased from 340 to 341 is -1.23 and the instantaneous rate of change when Q = 340 is -1.25

<h3>How to find the Instantaneous rate of change?</h3>

The annual inventory cost C for a manufacturer is given as;

C = (1012000/Q) + 7.5Q

where Q is the order size when the inventory is replenished.

Now, the change in C can be calculated by evaluating the cost function at Q = 340 and Q = 341

Change in C = [1,012,000/341 + 7.5*341] - [1,012,000/340 + 7.5*340] ≈ -1.23

Instantaneous rate of change in C is first order derivative C':

C'(Q) = -1,012,000/(Q²) + 7.5

C'(340) = -1,012,000/(340²) + 7.5 ≈ -1.25

Read more about Instantaneous rate of change at; brainly.com/question/14666106

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8 0
1 year ago
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