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HACTEHA [7]
2 years ago
6

How will a wave change as it moves from a layer of higher velocity into a lower layer of lower velocity?

Physics
1 answer:
denis-greek [22]2 years ago
6 0

Explanation:

Wave is defined as a disturbance or oscillation that travels through space-time, accompanied by a transfer of energy. Wave motion transfers energy from one point to another, often with no permanent displacement of the particles of the medium.

The velocity of wave is equal to the product of its wavelength and frequency (number of vibrations per second). Longitudinal waves like sound waves travel through a medium.

Therefore, a wave move from a layer of high velocity to that of a lower velocity the wavelength changes (that is, decreases) as it moves.

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A 500 kg table with 4 legs rests on solid flat ground. I place 3 books on the center of the table with masses of 10 kg, 20 kg an
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

1,373.4 N

Explanation:

The mass of the table acts at the centre in addition to the books since that is the centre of gravity of the table.

Mass of books will be 10kg+20kg+30kg=60 kg

Total mass of table and books will be 500kg+60kg=560 kg

This mass is evenly distributed into the four legs hence 560kg/4 legs=140 kg per leg

Force is product of mass and acceleration due to gravity hence F=gm

Taking g as 9.81 m/s2 then

F=140*9.81=1,373.4 N

Therefore, rhe normal force is equivalent to 1,373.4 N

6 0
2 years ago
The barometer of a mountain hiker reads 930 mbars at the beginning of a hiking trip and 780 mbars at the end. Neglecting the eff
lara31 [8.8K]
We could use the change of pressure to calculate for the height climbed by the mountain hiker. The change of pressure is given by

p = rho * g * h, where p is the change of pressure, rho is the air density, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height.

Using the conversion 1 mbar = 100 Pa,

(930 - 780)(100) = (1.20)(9.80)h
15000 = 1.20*9.80*h

h = 1.28 km
6 0
3 years ago
What are the units, if any, of the particle in a box wavefunction. What does this mean?
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

  • [\psi]= [Length^{-3/2}]
  • This means that the integral of the square modulus over the space is dimensionless.

Explanation:

We know that the square modulus of the wavefunction integrated over a volume gives us the probability of finding the particle in that volume. So the result of the integral

\int\limits^{x_f}_{x_0} \int\limits^{yf}_{y_0} \int\limits^{z_f}_{z_0} |\psi|^2 \, dz \,  dy \,  dx

must be dimensionless, as represents a probability.

As the differentials has units of length

[dx]=[dy]=[dz]=[Length]

for the integral to be dimensionless, the units of the square modulus of the wavefunction has to be:

[\psi]^2 = [Length^{-3}]

taking the square root this gives us :

[\psi] = [Length^{-3/2}]

5 0
3 years ago
. Light travels at a speed of about 300 000 km/s. a. Express this value in scientific notation. b. Convert this value to meters
olganol [36]

Answer:

The answer to your question is below

Explanation:

Data

light speed = 300 000 km/s

a) Express it in scientific notation

to do it, we just move the decimal point 5 places to the left

         300 000 = 3.0 x 10 ⁵ km/s

b) Convert this value to meters per hour

  (300 000 km/s)(1000 m/1 km)(3600 s/1 h) = 300000x1000x3600 / 1x1x1

                                                                        = 1.08 x 10¹² m/h

c) What distance in centimeters does light travel in 1 s?

data

v = 300 000 km/s

d = ?

t = 1 s

 formula   v = d/t      we clear distance     d = vxt

                                  d = 300000 x 1 = 300000 km

                                   d = 300000000 m = 30000000000 cm

4 0
3 years ago
A 70 kg base runner begins his slide into second base while moving at a speed of 4.35 m/s. He slides so that his speed is zero j
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer

given,

Mass of the runner, M = 70 Kg

speed of the runner on the second base = 4.35 m/s

speed at the base = 0 m/s

Acceleration due to gravity,g = 9.8 m/s²

a) magnitude of mechanical energy lost

  Mechanical energy lost is equal top gain in kinetic energy

   ME_{Lost}=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2

   ME_{Lost}=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 70\times 4.35^2

   ME_{Lost}=662.29\ J

b) Work done = Force x displacement

    W = F. x

     F = μ mg

    W = μ mg . x

Work done is equal to 662.29 J

  x=\dfrac{W}{\mu m g}

using the coefficient of the friction,μ = 0.7

  x=\dfrac{662.29}{ 0.7\times 70\times 9.8}

     x = 1.38 m

Hence, the runner will slide to 1.38 m.

3 0
2 years ago
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