Y=4 because y is 4 all the time
3 out of 10 quiz because if you divide 3 by 10 it's 0.3 but if you do 4/15 it's 0.26...
Answer:
1+4=5?
Step-by-step explanation:
5..?yeah...um..thx for the free points..^^
The probability that her first treat is jelly is 4/20. Since she eats the candy and does not replace it, the probability the second treat is jelly would be 3/19 (1 less jelly and 1 less total candies). You would then multiply (4/20) by (3/19). That is your answer.
You put it 48 divide 50 which equally 0.96 or 50 divide 48 which equal 1.04166666667
