1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
sergij07 [2.7K]
3 years ago
9

The presence of foreign pottery in a well-dated Egyptian context shows that this type of pottery cannot be more recent than thos

e Egyptian objects. This type of cross-dating establishes a__________ for the manufacture of the foreign pottery
Physics
1 answer:
Nutka1998 [239]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

TERMINUS ANTE QUEM

Explanation: Terminus ante quem is an Archeological an a Latin term used to describe the date before which an event or events took place,it is also used to show the date before which Archeological works have been deposited in a given area.

Example, a pottery dating to the 4th century AD found on a surface would give that pottery with a terminus ante quem of the 4thcentury AD.

This type of cross dating can either be TERMINUS ANTE QUEM OR TERMINUS POST QUEM.

You might be interested in
A hoop and a solid disc are relased from rest
Murljashka [212]

Answer:

1) The hoop and a solid disc rolling without slipping down an incline plane.

Their final velocities are proportional to their moment of inertia.

The condition for moment of inertia: v = ωR

We will use conservation of energy.

<u>For the hoop:</u>

K_1 + U_1 = K_2 + U_2\\0 + m_hgh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega_h^2 + 0

They are released from rest, so their initial kinetic energy is zero. And when they reach the bottom, their final potential energy is also zero.

The moment of inertia of a hoop is

I_h = m_hR^2

Let's continue with the energy equations:

m_h gh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}(m_hR^2)(\frac{v_h^2}{R^2})\\m_hgh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2\\m_hgh = m_hv_h^2\\v_h = \sqrt{gh}

Similarly <u>for the solid disk</u> with a moment of inertia of (1/2)mR^2:

K_1 + U_1 = K_2 + U_2\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{2}I_d\omega_d^2\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{2}m_dR^2)(\frac{v_d^2}{R^2})\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{4}m_dv_d^2\\m_dgh = \frac{3}{4}m_dv_d^2\\v_d = \sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}

Comparing the final velocities, we can conclude that the solid disk reaches the bottom first.

2) The angular acceleration of the pebble is equal to the angular acceleration of the tire, since they stuck together. We can deduce the angular acceleration of the tire from the linear acceleration of the bicycle.

The kinematics equations states that

v = v_0 + at\\4.47 = 0 + 2a\\a = 2.235 ~m/s^2

where a is the linear acceleration.

The relation with the angular and linear acceleration is

a = \alpha R

where R is the radius of the tire. Since it is not given in the question, we will leave it as R.

The angular acceleration of the small pebble is

\alpha = 2.235/R ~m/s^2

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
CORRECT ANSWER WILL BE REWARDED BRAINLIEST
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

What is 2^-3 x 3^-2 as a fraction?

What is (-2)^-3 x (-3)^-2 as a fraction

Explanation:

I need these pls. SORRYYY

7 0
3 years ago
A spherical conducting shell has charge Q. A point charge q is placed at the center of the cavity. The charge on the inner surfa
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:d

Explanation:

From Gauss law Electric field inside a surface is directly proportional to the charge enclosed in it.

Electric field inside a spherical shell is zero and hence there is no charge inside the spherical shell because q charge induces a -q charge on inside surface of spherical shell.

and to counter it there is q charge on the surface. So total charge outside the surface is Q+q

7 0
3 years ago
What is polarization. How can we remove it?
weqwewe [10]
Polarization is the action of restricting the vibrations of a transverse wave, especially light, wholly or partially to one direction .
7 0
3 years ago
A motor transfers 12 kJ of energy in 30 s. Calculate its power.
Diano4ka-milaya [45]

Answer:

power=400Watt

Explanation:

work done =12kJ=12×10³=12000j

time taken=30s

power=?

as we know that

power=work done/time taken

power=12000J/30s

power=400Watt

i hope this will help you :)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • True or false, the efficiency is the number of times a machine multiplies the input force...
    15·1 answer
  • How much force is needed to accelerate a 2500 kg car at a rate of 3.5 m/s^2?
    6·1 answer
  • What is interfacial polarisation ...?
    12·1 answer
  • Arwan finds a piece of quartz while hiking in the mountains. When he returns to school, he takes it to his science teacher. She
    13·2 answers
  • An airplane takes off a runway at a constant speed of 49m/s at constant angle 30 to the horizontal
    6·1 answer
  • When electrons are shared unequally a/an<br> bond is formed
    7·1 answer
  • A particle covers 10m distance in 2sec. if final velocity is 8m/s, find initial velocity​
    10·2 answers
  • Why does a bowling ball and a feather hit the ground at the same time when they are dropped in a vacuum?
    10·1 answer
  • 1. When a solar-operated calculator is used, which one of the following energy conversions takes place in the calculator?
    6·2 answers
  • . (a) How long can you play tennis on the 800 kJ (about 200 kcal) of energy in a candy bar? (b) Does this seem like a long time?
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!