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Pepsi [2]
3 years ago
12

What does it mean if the probability is 40% that a spinner will stop in a red section? Question 5 options: A. There is one chanc

e in 40 that the spinner will stop in a red section. B. It is 40 times more likely that the spinner will stop in a red section than any other section. C. There is a 2 in 5 chance that the spinner will stop in a red section. D. If the spinner is spun 100 times it is certain that it will stop in the red section exactly 40 times.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Svetllana [295]3 years ago
4 0
C would be the obvious solution.
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Look at the pair of equivalent expressions. 36 + 8 = ?(9 + 2) What number is missing from the expression?
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

? = 4

4 is the number missing on the right.

Step-by-step explanation:

Check out the 8 on left. It has become a 2 on the right. How did that happen?

What do you have to multiply the 2 by to get 8?

Before I answer, check out the 9 on the right. What did you have to multiply it by to get 36? The answer to that is 4 isn't it?

What about the 2. Don't you have to multiply it by 4 to get 8?

36 + 8 = 4(9 + 2) The distributive property on the right will produce the numbers on the left.

So ? = 4

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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If the bottom of a ship is 15.8 below the surface of the sea, calculate the pressure at the bottom of the ship. The density of t
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Given:
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Solve the systems of equations by the elimination method:<br> -2x + 2y = 2<br> -4y - 2x = -22
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(3,4)

Step by step explanation:
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