Answer:
Part A) the angular acceleration is α= 44.347 rad/s²
Part B) the angular velocity is 195.13 rad/s
Part C) the angular velocity is 345.913 rad/s
Part D ) the time is t= 7.652 s
Explanation:
Part A) since angular acceleration is related with angular acceleration through:
α = a/R = 10.2 m/s² / 0.23 m = 44.347 rad/s²
Part B) since angular acceleration is related
since
v = v0 + a*(t-t0) = 51.0 m/s + (-10.2 m/s²)*(3.4 s - 2.8 s) = 44.88 m/s
since
ω = v/R = 44.88 m/s/ 0.230 m = 195.13 rad/s
Part C) at t=0
v = v0 + a*(t-t0) = 51.0 m/s + (-10.2 m/s²)*(0 s - 2.8 s) = 79.56 m/s
ω = v/R = 79.56 m/s/ 0.230 m = 345.913 rad/s
Part D ) since the radial acceleration is related with the velocity through
ar = v² / R → v= √(R * ar) = √(0.23 m * 9.81 m/s²)= 1.5 m/s
therefore
v = v0 + a*(t-t0) → t =(v - v0) /a + t0 = ( 1.5 m/s - 51.0 m/s) / (-10.2 m/s²) + 2.8 s = 7.652 s
t= 7.652 s
The magnitude of the magnetic field on the axis of the ring 5 cm from its center is 143 pT.
The radius of the nonconducting ring is R = 10 cm.
The ring is uniformly charged q = 10 μC.
The angular speed of the ring, ω = 20 rad/s
The ring is x = 5 cm from the center of the ring.
Now,
R = 10 cm = 0.1 m
q = 10.0 μC = 10 × 10⁻⁶ C
x = 5 cm = 0.05 m
The magnetic field on the axis of a current loop is given as:
B = [ μ₀ IR² ] / [4π(x² + R²)^{3/2} ]
Now, I = q / [2π/ω]
So, the magnitude of the magnetic field which is directed away from the center is:
B = [ μ₀ ωqR² ] / [4π(x² + R²)^{3/2} ]
B = [ μ₀ (200) (10 × 10⁻⁶) (0.1)² ] / [4π((0.05)² + (0.1)²)^{3/2} ]
B = 1.43 × 10⁻¹⁰ T
B = 143 pT
Learn more about the magnetic field here:
brainly.com/question/14411049
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Answer:
N = 148.10N
Explanation:
GIVEN
Weight =125 N
force = 35
angle =42°
since there is no vertical acceleration
from
free body diagram


The ballerinas takes advantage of the moment of interia by not stretching her hands out etc. and by doing so decreasing the moment of interia and therefore a smaller torque is produced to rotate at a faster rate.