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Blizzard [7]
3 years ago
13

What are the divisions within a shell called

Physics
1 answer:
blsea [12.9K]3 years ago
5 0
The divisions within an atom's shell are called subshells. This means that each shell consists of several subshells that are made up of orbitals. Each orbital consists of 1 or 2 electrons. The outermost shell of an atom is what we call the valence electrons, and they are what participate in chemical bonding.
You might be interested in
How do two sublevels of the same principal energy level differ from each other
Colt1911 [192]

Each energy sublevel corresponds to an orbital of a different shape.

Explanation:

Two sublevels of the same principal energy level differs from each other if the sublevels corrresponds to an orbital of a different shape.

  • The principal quantum number of an atom represents the main energy level in which the orbital is located or the distance of an orbital from the nucleus. It takes values of n = 1,2,3,4 et.c
  • The secondary quantum number gives the shape of the orbitals in subshells accommodating electrons.
  • The number of possible shapes is limited  by the principal quantum numbers.

Take for example, Carbon:

                      1s² 2s² 2p²

   The second energy level is 2 but with two different sublevels of s and p. They have different shapes. S is spherical and P is dumb-bell shaped .

Learn more:

Quantum number brainly.com/question/9288609

#learnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
Two rigid rods are oriented parallel to each other and to the ground. The rods carry the same current in the same direction. The
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

220 A

Explanation:

The magnetic force on the floating rod due to the rod held close to the ground is F = BI₁L where B = magnetic field due to rod held close the ground = μ₀I₂/2πd where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m, I₂ = current in rod close to ground and d = distance between both rods = 11 mm = 0.011 m. Also, I₁ = current in floating rod and L = length of rod = 1.1 m.

So, F = BI₁L

F = (μ₀I₂/2πd)I₁L

F = μ₀I₁I₂L/2πd

Given that the current in the rods are the same, I₁ = I₂ = I

So,

F = μ₀I²L/2πd

Now, the magnetic force on the floating rod equals its weight , W = mg where m = mass of rod = 0.10kg and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

So, F = W

μ₀I²L/2πd = mg

making I subject of the formula, we have

I² = 2πdmg/μ₀L

I = √(2πdmg/μ₀L)

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

I = √(2π × 0.011 m × 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s²/[4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2 × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2.2 × 10⁻⁷ H])

I = √(0.0049 × 10⁷kgm²/s²H)

I = √(0.049 × 10⁶kgm²/s²H)

I = 0.22 × 10³ A

I = 220 A

7 0
3 years ago
A real power supply can be modeled as an ideal EMF of 60 Volts in series with an internal resistance. The voltage across the ter
lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

5 ohms

Explanation:

Given:

EMF of the ideal battery (E) = 60 V

Voltage across the terminals of the battery (V) = 40 V

Current across the terminals (I) = 4 A

Let the internal resistance be 'r'.

Now, we know that, the voltage drop in the battery is given as:

V_d=Ir

Therefore, the voltage across the terminals of the battery is given as:

V= E-V_d\\\\V=E-Ir

Now, rewriting in terms of 'r', we get:

Ir=E-V\\\\r=\frac{E-V}{I}

Plug in the given values and solve for 'r'. This gives,

r=\frac{60-40}{4}\\\\r=\frac{20}{4}\\\\r=5\ ohms

Therefore, the internal resistance of the battery is 5 ohms.

5 0
4 years ago
Two horizontal rods are each held up by vertical strings tied to their ends. Rod 1 has length L and mass M; rod 2 has length 2L
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

Rod 1 has greater initial angular acceleration; The initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

Explanation:

For the rod 1 the angular acceleration is

\tau_1 = I_1\alpha _1 \\\\\alpha_1 = \dfrac{\tau_1}{I_1}

Similarly, for rod 2

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{\tau_2}{I_2}.

Now, the moment of inertia for rod 1 is

I_1 = \dfrac{1}{3}ML^2,

and the torque acting on it is (about the center of mass)

\tau_1 = Mg\dfrac{L}{2};

therefore, the angular acceleration of rod 1 is  

\alpha_1 = \dfrac{Mg\dfrac{L}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{3}ML^2},

\boxed{\alpha_1 = \dfrac{3g}{2L} }

Now, for rod 2 the moment of inertia is

I_2 = \dfrac{1}{3}(2M)(2L)^2

I_2 = \dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,

and the torque acting is (about the center of mass)

\tau _2 = (2M)g \dfrac{(2L)}{2}

\tau _2 = 2MgL;

therefore, the angular acceleration \alpha_2 is

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{2MgL;}{\dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,}.

\boxed{\alpha_2 = \dfrac{3g}{4L}}

We see here that

\dfrac{3g}{2L} > \dfrac{3g}{4L}

therefore

\boxed{\alpha_1 > \alpha_2.}

In other words , the initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

7 0
3 years ago
A 35.0-kg child swings in a swing supported by two chains, each 3.02 m long. The tension in each chain at the lowest point is 41
n200080 [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Total tension must support the weight of the child and provide the necessary centripetal force.

    2T = m(g + v²/R)

2(414) = 35.0(9.81 + v²/3.02)

  828 = 35.0(9.81 + v²/3.02)

23.65 = 9.81 + v²/3.02

13.847 = v²/3.02

 41.81 = v²

      v = 6.47 m/s

F = 2(414) = 828 N    (ignoring the weight of the chains and seat)

3 0
3 years ago
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