Adam<span> applies and input force to the pulley as he pulls down to </span>lift the object<span>. As he does this, </span>Adam<span>wonders about how the pulley is </span>helping<span> him
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Larger stars have a higher amount of fuel in order to keep the process of nuclear fusion going.
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Hey There!</h2><h2>
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Answer:</h2><h2 /><h2>

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<h2>DATA:</h2>
mass = m = 2kg
Distance = x = 6m
Force = 30N
TO FIND:
Work = W = ?
Velocity = V = ?
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SOLUTION:</h2>
According to the object of mass 2 kg travels a distance when the force was exerted on it. The graph between the Force and position was plotted which shows that 30 N of force was used to push the object till the distance of 6.0m.
To find the work, I will use the method of determining the area of the plotted graph. As the graph is plotted in the straight line between the Force and work, THE PICTURE ATTCHED SHOWS THE AREA COVERED IN BLUE AS WORK DONE AND HEIGHT AS 30m AND DISTANCE COVERED AS 6m To solve for the area(work) of triangle is given as,

Base is the x-axis of the graph which is Position i.e. 6m
Height is the y-axis of the graph which is Force i.e. 30N
So,

W = 90 J
The work done is 90 J.
According to the principle of work and kinetic energy (also known as the work-energy theorem) states that the work done by the sum of all forces acting on a particle equals the change in the kinetic energy of the particle.



<h2>_____________________________________</h2><h2>Best Regards,</h2><h2>'Borz'</h2>
Answer:
L = μ₀ n r / 2I
Explanation:
This exercise we must relate several equations, let's start writing the voltage in a coil
= - L dI / dt
Let's use Faraday's law
E = - d Ф_B / dt
in the case of the coil this voltage is the same, so we can equal the two relationships
- d Ф_B / dt = - L dI / dt
The magnetic flux is the sum of the flux in each turn, if there are n turns in the coil
n d Ф_B = L dI
we can remove the differentials
n Ф_B = L I
magnetic flux is defined by
Ф_B = B . A
in this case the direction of the magnetic field is along the coil and the normal direction to the area as well, therefore the scalar product is reduced to the algebraic product
n B A = L I
the loop area is
A = π R²
we substitute
n B π R² = L I (1)
To find the magnetic field in the coil let's use Ampere's law
∫ B. ds = μ₀ I
where B is the magnetic field and s is the current circulation, in the coil the current circulates along the length of the coil
s = 2π R
we solve
B 2ππ R = μ₀ I
B = μ₀ I / 2πR
we substitute in
n ( μ₀ I / 2πR) π R² = L I
n μ₀ R / 2 = L I
L = μ₀ n r / 2I