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Rus_ich [418]
4 years ago
5

Please answer this correctly.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ganezh [65]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The given function is a nonlinear function because the degree of the function is 2 and we get same value of y for more than one values of x.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

y=2x^2-5

To find the points which lie on the function, put difference values of x in the given function and find the values of y.

Put x= -2

y=2(-2)^2-5=2(4)-5=8-5=3

Put x= -1

y=2(-1)^2-5=2(1)-5=2-5=-3

Put x= 0

y=2(0)^2-5=2(0)-5=-5=-5

Put x=1

y=2(1)^2-5=2(1)-5=2-5=-3

Put x= 2

y=2(2)^2-5=2(4)-5=8-5=3

The table of values is shown below.

Plot these points on a coordinate plane and connect them by a free hand curve.

The given function is a nonlinear function because the degree of the function is 2 and we get same value of y for more than one values of x.

The graph of function is shown below.

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Answer two questions about Equations AAA and BBB: \begin{aligned} A.&&\dfrac x4+1&=-3 \\\\ B.&&x+4&=-12
luda_lava [24]

The given equations are as follows

\begin{aligned} A.&&\dfrac x4+1&=-3 \\\\ B.&&x+4&=-12 \end{aligned}

(1) First, multiply both sides of equation A by 4, we have

4\times\left(\frac{x}{4} +1\right)=4\times(-3)

Then, rewrite the left-hand side of the above equation by using the distributive property, we have

4\times\frac{x}{4}+4\times1=4(-3)

\Rightarrow x+4=-12

This is the required equation B.

In this way, first use choice D: Multiply both sides by the same non-zero constant, i.e 4.

Then, apply choice A to solve the equation, i.e using the distributive property to solve the left-hand side of the equation.

(2) In the previous answer, equation B has been derived from equation A, hence, both the equations are equivalent.

As both the equations are the same, so both will have the same solution.

Yes, they have the same solution.

3 0
3 years ago
Find the value A :(....
bekas [8.4K]
The value of A is 144 degrees
8 0
4 years ago
What is 1/5 of 45? please help my 10 yr. Old.
Sedaia [141]
<span><u><em>Answer:</em></u>
9

<u><em>Explanation:</em></u>
To get the fraction of a number, you will simply multiply the fraction by the given number.

For the given, we want to find </span>\frac{1}{5}<span> of 45.
<u><em>This can be computed as follows:</em></u>
</span>\frac{1}{5} of 45 = \frac{1}{5}<span> * 45

= </span>\frac{1*45}{5}

= \frac{45}{5}

<span>= 9

Therefore, </span>\frac{1}{5}<span> of 45 is 9

Hope this helps :)</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A game involves selecting a card from a regular 52-card deck and tossing a coin. The coin is a fair coin and is equally likely t
nadezda [96]

Answer:

Expect to lose about $0.73 or 73 cents for each game played

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's define the four events:

F = event of drawing a face card

N = event of drawing a non-face card

H = event of the coin landing on heads

T = event of the coin landing on tails

The events F and N are complementary and this means that one event or the other, but not both, must happen. We either draw a face card (F) or we don't (N). This is why the probabilities add to 1

P(F) + P(N) = 1

Thus;

P(N) = 1 - P(F)

There are 4 suits with 3 face cards per suit (King, Queen, Jack).

So 4 x 3 = 12 face cards out of 52 cards total.

Therefore,

P(F) = probability of drawing a face card = (number of face cards)/(number of cards total)

P(F) = 12/52 = 3/13

And,

P(N) = probability of drawing a non-face card

P(N) = 1 - P(F)

P(N) = 1 - (3/13)

P(N) = 10/13

Now, assuming we have a fair coin with either side is likely to be landed on, it means that;

P(H) = 1/2

P(T) = 1/2

So, P(H) + P(T) = 1

Assuming the events of drawing a card and flipping a coin are independent, then we can form the compound probabilities

P(F & H) = P(F) x P(H)

P(F & H) = (3/13) x (1/2) = 3/26

P(F & T) = P(F) x P(T)

P(F & T) = (3/13)*(1/2) = 3/26

Now, Similar to the probability P(X) notation, let's introduce the function V(X) where V is the net value and X is the general event. To be more specific, writing V(F) represents the net value of drawing a face card.

The three cases we're concerned with are:

V(F & H) = net value for getting face card and heads = 5

V(F & T) = net value for getting face card and tails = 2

V(N) = net value for getting non face card = -2

The negative value (-2) indicates a loss of 2 dollars.

When we play the game out, there are three cases:

Case A = drawing a face card and the coin landing on heads

Case B = drawing a face card and the coin landing on tails

Case C = drawing a non-face card

What we do is multiply the probabilities for each case happening with the net values for each case.

Thus;

For case A, we have the probability P(F & H) = 3/26 and the net value V(F & H) = 5

Hence;

P(F & H) x V(F & H) = (3/26) x 5 = 15/26 = 15/26

Similarly for case B

P(F & T) x V(F & T) = (3/26) x 2 = 6/26 = 3/13

and finally case C

P(N) x V(N) = (10/13) x (-2) = -20/13

Let's now add them up to get;

(15/26) + (3/13) + (-20/13)

This gives; (15 + 6 - 40)/26 = -19/26 = $-0.73

At this expected value, it means that we expect to lose about $0.73 or 73 cents for each game played. This is not a fair game (because expected value isn't 0). Thus, the game clearly favors the house instead of the player.

5 0
3 years ago
Helppppppo...................​
natulia [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the kinematics equation,

v = u + at

where v = Final speed = 15m/s

u = Initial Speed = 30m/s

t = time taken = 10 seconds

a = acceleration.

Substitute v , u and t to find a.

15 = 30 + 10t \\ 10t = 15 - 30 \\ 10t =  - 15 \\ t =  - 15 \div 10 \\  =  - 1.5 \frac{m}{ {s}^{2} }

5 0
3 years ago
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