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2 years ago

How do your results from ray tracing compare to your results from using the thin-lens equation?

Physics

1 answer:

EastWind [94]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

20cm

Explanation:

A convex lens has a positive focal length and the object placed in front of it produce both virtual and real image <em>(image distance can be negative or positive depending on the nature of the image</em>).

According to the lens equation

$\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v}$ where;

f is the focal length of the lens

u is the object distance

v is the image distance

If the magnification is - 0.6

mag = v/u = -0.5

v = -0.5u

since v = 10cm

10 = -0.5u

u = -10/0.5

u =-20 cm

Substitute u = -20cm ( due to negative magnification)and v = 10cm into the lens formula to get the focal length f

$\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v}\\\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{-20} + \frac{1}{10}\\\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{-20} + \frac{1}{10}\\\frac{1}{f} = \frac{-1+2}{20} \\\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{20} \\cross \ multiply\\f = 20\\f = 20 cm$

Hence the focal length of the convex lens is 20cm

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Mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of output load to the input load. The mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1.

<h3>What is mechanical advantage?</h3>

Mechanical advantage is a measure of the ratio of output force to input force in a system,

It is used to obtain the efficiency of forces in levers and pulleys. It is an effective way of amplifying the force in simple machines like levers.

The theoretical mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of the force responsible for the useful work in the system to the applied force.

Given

applied force = 250 N

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Mechanical advantage = work output / work input

$\rm{Mechanical advantage}=\frac{F_O}{F_I}$

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Hence the mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1

To learn more about the mechanical advantage refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/7638820

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2 years ago

dam is used to block the passage of a river and to generate electricity. Approximately 58.4 x 103 kg of water falls each second

mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

8.049 MW

Explanation:

The expression for gravitational potential energy is given as

Ep = mgh............. Equation 1

Ep = gravitational potential energy, m = mass of water, h = height, g = acceleration due to gravity.

Given: m = 58.4×10³ kg, h = 20.1 m, g = 9.81 m/s²

Substitute into equation 1

Ep = 58.4×10³(20.1)(9.81)

Ep = 1.6098×10⁷ J.

If one half the gravitational potential energy of the water were converted to electrical energy

Electrical energy = Ep/2

Electrical energy = (1.6098×10⁷)/2

Electrical energy = 8.049×10⁶ J

In one seconds,

The power generated = 8.049×10⁶ W

Power generated = 8.049 MW

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3 years ago

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Oil is less dense than water so it tends to float on the top of the water. Hope this Helps!

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3 years ago

Help pls i need this right now

pantera1 [17]

Answer:

The x-component of $F_{3}$ is 56.148 newtons.

Explanation:

From 1st and 2nd Newton's Law we know that a system is at rest when net acceleration is zero. Then, the vectorial sum of the three forces must be equal to zero. That is:

$\vec F_{1} + \vec F_{2} + \vec F_{3} = \vec O$ (1)

Where:

$\vec F_{1}$ , $\vec F_{2}$ , $\vec F_{3}$ - External forces exerted on the ring, measured in newtons.

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If we know that $\vec F_{1} = (70.711,70.711)\,[N]$ , $\vec F_{2} = (-126.859, 46.173)\,[N]$ , $F_{3} = (F_{3,x},F_{3,y})$ and $\vec O = (0,0)\,[N]$ , then we construct the following system of linear equations: