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Rama09 [41]
3 years ago
6

Choose what colors are absorbed when white light hits a red apple. (Pick all that apply.)

Physics
1 answer:
astra-53 [7]3 years ago
4 0
A red apple absorbs all colors of visible light except red, so red light
is the only light left to bounce off of the apple toward our eyes. 
(This is a big part of the reason that we call it a "red" apple.)

Here's how the various items on the list make out when they hit the apple:

<span>Red . . . . . reflected
Orange . . absorbed
Yellow . . . </span><span><span>absorbed
</span>Green . </span><span><span>. . absorbed
</span>Blue . . </span><span><span>. . absorbed
</span>Violet .</span><span> . . absorbed</span>
<span>Black . . . no light; not a color
White . . . has all colors in it</span>

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Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
The electrons in the beam of a television tube have an energy of 19.0 keV. The tube is oriented so that the electrons move horiz
igomit [66]

Answer:

The direction is due south

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The energy of the electron is E = 19.0keV = 19.0 *10^3 eV

      The earths magnetic field is B = 42.3 \muT = 42.3 *10^{-6} T

     

Generally the force on the electron is perpendicular to the velocity of the elecrton and the magnetic field and this is mathematically reresented as

          \= F = q (\= v * \=B)

On the first uploaded image is an  illustration of the movement of the electron

    Looking at the diagram  we can see that in terms of direction  the magnetic force  is

             \= F  =q(\=v * \= B)= -( -\r i * - \r k)

                = -(- (\r i * \r k))

generally  i cross k = -j

      so the equation above becomes

             \= F = -(-(- \r j))

                = - \r j

This show that the direction is towards the south  

 

3 0
3 years ago
Keisha is making a diagram of a simple machine in the body.
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

Sorry for being late. It is...

A.) X: Load, Y: Fulcrum, Z: Lever

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
what is the difference in the charges on a balloon rubbed in your hair and a glass  rod rubbed with silk? why?
lbvjy [14]
The balloon steals electrons from your hair, leaving the hair positively charged, and the balloon negatively charged. It causes the hair to be apart from each other, because they have the same charge. Glass has a weaker hold on electrons, and silk absorbs the lost electrons.
8 0
2 years ago
Give 1 real life example of a scenario that takes advantage of the inverse relationship between force and time when impulse is c
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

On real life example of a scenario that takes advantage of the inverse relationship between force and time when impulse is constant is when making a serve with a lawn tennis racket

How It is an example of impulse is that when a serve is made by moving the bat slowly, the lawn tennis player uses less force and the ball is in contact with the string for longer a period

When however, the lawn tennis player moves the racket faster, with the strings of the racket highly tensioned  he uses more force and the ball also spends less time on the racket to produce the same momentum

Explanation:

The impulse of a force, ΔP is given by the following formula;

ΔP = F × Δt

Where ΔP is constant, we have;

F ∝ 1/Δt

Therefore, for the same impulse, when the force is increased, the time of contact is decreases and vice versa.

7 0
3 years ago
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