What's the formula for acceleration when force is included.
2 answers:
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The energy carried by a single photon is given by
where h is the Planck's constant and f is the frequency of the photon.
The photon of our exercise has a frequency of
, therefore its energy is
where h is the Planck's constant and f is the frequency of the photon.
The photon of our exercise has a frequency of
Answer:
a. It became deeper by a factor of 3.
Explanation:
What we have is water flowing down a river with constant width. The water slows from speed v to v3 over a shirt distance
Using the equation of continuity
A1V1 = A2V2 ----1
A1 is the area of rectangle
V1 is the velocity of water
Area of rectangle = length x width
We rewrite equation 1 as
λ1w1v1 = λ2w2v2
We have w1 = w2
λ1v1 = λ2v2
λ1*v1 = λ2*v/3
λ1 = λ2/3
So it becomes deeper by a factor of 3
Answer:
a)
b)
Explanation:
In order to solve this problem we must first do a drawing of the situation and a free body diagram. (Check attached picture).
After a close look at the diagram and the problem we can see that the crate will have a constant velocity. This means there will be no acceleration to the crate so the sum of the forces must be equal to zero according to Newton's third law. So we can build a sum of forces in both x and y-direction. Let's start with the analysis of the forces in the y-direction:
We can see there are three forces acting in the y-direction, the weight of the crate, the normal force and the force in the y-direction, so our sum of forces is:
When solving for the normal force we get:
we know that
W=mg
and
so after substituting we get that
N=F sin θ +mg
We also know that the kinetic friction is defined to be:
so we can find the kinetic friction by substituting for N, so we get:
Now we can find the sum of forces in x:
so after analyzing the diagram we can build our sum of forces to be:
we know that:
so we can substitute the equations we already have in the sum of forces on x so we get:
so now we can solve for the force, we start by distributing so we get:
we add to both sides so we get:
Nos we factor F so we get:
and now we divide both sides of the equation into so we get:
which is our answer to part a.
Now, for part b, we will have the exact same free body diagram, with the difference that the friction coefficient we will use for this part will be the static friction coefficient, so by following the same procedure we followed on the previous problem we get the equations:
and
F cos θ = f
when substituting one into the other we get:
which can be solved for the static friction coefficient so we get:
which is the answer to part b.
