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padilas [110]
3 years ago
11

I need help please?!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
icang [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

positvie 8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

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Quetion to represent each problem the sum of 15 and six times a number tea is 80 One what is the number
andrew-mc [135]

Answer: 11

Step-by-step explanation: The sum of 15 and six times t will be 15 + 6t = 81.

Now, you subtract 15 from both sides to isolate the constants from the variables on the left side and on the other side and you will end up with 6t = 66. Then, you divide 6 from both sides to finally isolate the numbers from the variable and 66 divided by 6 would equal 11


Hope this Helps :)


6 0
3 years ago
Martiza remembers her pin because it is between 1000 and 1500 and it is a product of two consecutive prime numbers what is her p
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

Her pin must be 1147

Step-by-step explanation:

A little trick I have up my sleeve when I have these kind of questions is that I find the square root of each number, then find what is prime.

\sqrt{1000}  = 31.6

\sqrt{1500} = 38.7

Since the only prime numbers in the range of 31 and 38 is 31 and 37.

We can then multiply 31 by 37 to get 1147.

6 0
3 years ago
Stuck on question 1, can anyone help???
poizon [28]

'A' is the square root of 25. That's 5, so take A=5 with you
as you go to the next step.

B is A³.   A³ means (A x A x A).  We know that 'A' is 5, so 'B' is (5x 5 x 5) = 125 .
Take B=125 with you to the next step.

'C' is  B - 25.  We know that  'B'  is 125.  So  C = (125 - 25) = 100 .
Take  C=100  with you to the next step.

'D' is the square root of  'C'.  We know that C=100, so  D = √100 .
The square root of 100 is 10, so  D=10.
Take  D=10  with you to the next step .

'E' is  D+39.  We know that  D=10.  So  E=(10+39) = 49 .
Take  E=49 with you to the last step.

'F' is the square root of 'E'.  We know that E=49.


7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help urgent!!! i have attached a picture of the question
rusak2 [61]
The length of EH would be 4.8
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Using De-Moivre's theorem, prove that i^2= -1.​
Novosadov [1.4K]

Write i in trigonometric form. Since |i| = 1 and arg(i) = π/2, we have

i = exp(i π/2) = cos(π/2) + i sin(π/2)

By DeMoivre's theorem,

i² = exp(i π/2)² = exp(i π) = cos(π) + i sin(π)

and it follows that i² = -1 since cos(π) = -1 and sin(π) = 0.

3 0
2 years ago
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