Answer:
c
Step-by-step explanation:
1/6. theres only one 2, and theres 6 numbers total.
Answer: 25 %
Step-by-step explanation: because it would be one fourth
Answer:
Yes thank you
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A.
Step-by-step explanation:
So we are given the function:

To find the inverse of the function, we simply need to flip <em>f(x)</em> and <em>x</em> and then solve for <em>f(x)</em>. Thus:

So the answer is A.
I was taught to get a common denominator and then arrange them in the correct order.
So first you find out what all the denominations can be multiplied to. That would be 40
So you multiply the bottom of each fraction by a number that will get 40.
3/4 * 10 = 30/40
7/8 * 5 = 35/40
3/5 * 8 = 24/40
Then you get 30/40, 35/40, and 24/40.
Then you organize the m.
24/40, 30/40, and 35/40