Answer:
v₂=- 34 .85 m/s
v₁=0.14 m/s
Explanation:
Given that
m₁=70 kg ,u₁=0 m/s
m₂=0.15 kg ,u₂=35 m/s
Given that collision is elastic .We know that for elastic collision
Lets take their final speed is v₁ and v₂
From momentum conservation
m₁u₁+m₂u₂=m₁v₁+m₂v₂
70 x 0+ 0.15 x 35 = 70 x v₁ + 0.15 x v₂
70 x v₁ + 0.15 x v₂=5.25 --------1
v₂-v₁=u₁-u₂ ( e= 1)
v₂-v₁ = -35 --------2
By solving above equations
v₂=- 34 .85 m/s
v₁=0.14 m/s
If the pressure above a solution containing a gas solute is reduced, the limit of the gas's solubility will decrease.
Te direction of the magnetic force for the velocity of the proton in the
-ve y direction will be +ve z direction.
As we know that the right-hand rule is based on the relation of magnetic fields and the forces that they exert on moving charges.When a charged particle moves under a magnetic field, it exerts a force on the particle, which is not in the same direction but different than the direction of the magnetic field.Under the right-hand rule, if we point our pointer finger in the direction of the charged particle is moving and the middle finger is representing the direction of the magnetic field then our thumb depicts the direction of the magnetic force which is exerted on the charged particle.
So, we are given that the direction of the velocity of the proton is in the negative y direction and the direction of the magnetic field is in the positive x direction, so the magnetic force is acting in the positive z direction.
To know more about the right-hand rule refer to the link brainly.com/question/9750730?referrer=searchResults.
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Answer: a) for 150 Angstroms 6.63 *10^-3 eV; b) for 5 Angstroms 6.02 eV
Explanation: To solve this problem we have to use the relationship given by De Broglie as:
λ =p/h where p is the momentum and h the Planck constant
if we consider the energy given by acceleration tube for the electrons given by: E: e ΔV so is equal to kinetic energy of electrons p^2/2m
Finally we have:
eΔV=p^2/2m= h^2/(2*m*λ^2)
replacing we obtained the above values.