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LenaWriter [7]
4 years ago
10

What is sedentary lifestyle?

Physics
1 answer:
Effectus [21]4 years ago
7 0
A sedentary lifestyle is when you don't make any exercise. For example, if I spent a whole week just sitting down answering questions, that would be an example of a sedentary lifestyle, because I'm not running or jogging. Having that type of lifestyle can make you fat and get health problems.

Have a nice day! :)
You might be interested in
A 5 kg ball takes 13.3 seconds for one revolution around the circle. What's the magnitude of the angular velocity of this motion
Tcecarenko [31]

Answer: 0.47 rad/sec

Explanation:

By definition, the angular velocity is the rate of change of the angle traveled with time, so we can state the following:

ω = ∆θ/ ∆t

Now, we are told that in 13.3 sec, the ball completes one revolution around the circle, which means that, by definition of angle, it has rotated 2 π rad (an arc of 2πr over the radius r), so we can find ω as follows:

ω = 2 π / 13.3 rad/sec = 0.47 rad/sec

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The three stages of a train route took 1 hour ,2 hours ,and 4 hours . The first two stages were 80km and 200km of the train aver
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

the third stage was 480 km long

Explanation:

Stage 1:

Time = 1 hours

Speed = 80km

Stage 2:

Time =  2 hours

Speed = 200km

Stage 3:

Time =  4 hours

Let the Distance at the stage 3 be x

Average speed of the train route = 100 km/h

So

\frac{ \text{speed at stage 1} + \text{speed at stage 2} + \text{speed at stage 3}}{3} = 0

\frac{ \text{speed at stage 1} + \text{speed at stage 2} + \text{speed at stage 3}}{3} = 100

Lets find the speed at stage 1

Speed =  \frac{Distance }{Time}

Speed =  \frac{80}{1}

Speed 1= 80 km/hr

The speed at stage 2

Speed =  \frac{Distance }{Time}

Speed =  \frac{200}{2}

Speed 2  = 100 km/hr

The speed at stage 3

Speed =  \frac{Distance }{Time}

Speed =  \frac{x}{4}

Speed 3  = \frac{x}{4}

we kow that average is ,

\frac{ \text{speed 1} + \text{speed 2} + \text{speed 3}}{3} = 100

\frac{ 80 + 100+ \frac{x}{4} }{3} = 100

\frac{ 180 + \frac{x}{4} }{3} = 100

\frac{ \frac{720 +x}{4} }{3} = 100

\frac{720 +x}{4} \times \frac{1}{3} = 100

\frac{720 +x}{12} = 100

720 +x = 100 \times 12

720 +x = 1200

x = 1200- 720

x = 480

6 0
3 years ago
Who described atoms as small spheres that could not be divided into anything smaller? bohr dalton rutherford thomson
Volgvan
John Dalton gave that that description.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If 1.00 mol of argon is placed in a 0.500-L container at 28.0 ∘C , what is the difference between the ideal pressure (as predict
Rudik [331]

Answer:

1.98 atm

Explanation:

Given that:

Temperature = 28.0 °C

The conversion of T( °C) to T(K) is shown below:

T(K) = T( °C) + 273.15  

So,  

T₁ = (28 + 273.15) K = 301.15 K

n = 1

V = 0.500 L

Using ideal gas equation as:

PV=nRT

where,  

P is the pressure

V is the volume

n is the number of moles

T is the temperature  

R is Gas constant having value = 0.0821 L atm/ K mol  

Applying the equation as:

P × 0.500 L = 1 ×0.0821 L atm/ K mol  × 301.15 K

⇒P (ideal) = 49.45 atm

Using Van der Waal's equation

\left(P+\frac{an^2}{V^2}\right)\left(V-nb\right)=nRT

R = 0.0821 L atm/ K mol  

Where, a and b are constants.

For Ar, given that:

So, a = 1.345 atm L² / mol²

b =  0.03219 L / mol

So,  

\left(P+\frac{1.345\times \:1^2}{0.500^2}\right)\left(0.500-1\times 0.03219\right)=1\times 0.0821\times 301.15

P+\frac{1.345}{0.25}=\frac{24.724415}{0.46781}

P=\frac{24.724415}{0.46781}-\frac{1.345}{0.25}

⇒P  (real) = 47.47 atm

Difference in pressure = 49.45 atm - 47.47 atm = 1.98 atm

4 0
3 years ago
7) T F If two forces of equal magnitude act on an object that is hinged at a pivot, the force acting farther from the pivot must
saul85 [17]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The torque exerted by a force is given by:

\tau=Fd sin \theta

where

F is the magnitude of the force

d is the distance between the point of application of the force and the pivot

\theta is the angle between the directions of F and d

We see that the magnitude of the torque depends on 3 factors. In this problem, we have 2 forces of equal magnitude (so, equal F). Moreover, one of the forces (let's call it force 1) acts farther from the pivot than force 2, so we have

d_1 > d_2

However, this does not mean that force 1 produces a greater torque. In fact, it also depends on the angle at which the force is applied. For instance, if the first force is applied parallel to d, then we have

\theta_1 =0\\sin \theta=0

and the torque produced by this force would be zero.

So, the statement is false.

4 0
3 years ago
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