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hichkok12 [17]
3 years ago
13

A wave with a large amplitude has a lot of             a.vibration  b.speed   c.energy    

Physics
2 answers:
adoni [48]3 years ago
6 0
<span>A wave with a large amplitude has a lot of             a.vibration  b.speed  <u> c.energy</u></span>
Nastasia [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<em />

<em>A high amplitude wave carries a large amount of energy; a low amplitude wave carries a small amount of energy. The average amount of energy passing through a unit area per unit of time in a specified direction is called the intensity of the wave.</em>

<u><em /></u>

<u><em>Enjoy.</em></u>

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Suppose that an asteroid traveling straight toward the center of the earth were to collide with our planet at the equator and bu
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\frac{1}{10}M

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To apply the concept of <u>angular momentum conservation</u>, there should be no external torque before and after

As the <u>asteroid is travelling directly towards the center of the Earth</u>, after impact ,it <u>does not impose any torque on earth's rotation,</u> So angular momentum of earth is conserved

⇒I_{1} \times W_{1} =I_{2} \times W_{2}

  • I_{1} is the moment of interia of earth before impact
  • W_{1} is the angular velocity of earth about an axis passing through the center of earth before impact
  • I_{2} is moment of interia of earth and asteroid system
  • W_{2} is the angular velocity of earth and asteroid system about the same axis

let  W_{1}=W

since \text{Time period of rotation}∝\frac{1}{\text{Angular velocity}}

⇒ if time period is to increase by 25%, which is \frac{5}{4} times, the angular velocity decreases 25% which is \frac{4}{5}  times

therefore W_{1} = \frac{4}{5} \times W_{1}

I_{1}=\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}(moment of inertia of solid sphere)

where M is mass of earth

           R is radius of earth

I_{2}=\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+M_{1}\times R^{2}

(As given asteroid is very small compared to earth, we assume it be a particle compared to earth, therefore by parallel axis theorem we find its moment of inertia with respect to axis)

where M_{1} is mass of asteroid

⇒ \frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2} \times W_{1}=}(\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+ M_{1}\times R^{2})\times(\frac{4}{5} \times W_{1})

\frac{1}{2} \times M\times R^{2}= (\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+ M_{1}\times R^{2})

M_{1}\times R^{2}= \frac{1}{10} \times M\times R^{2}

⇒M_{1}=}\frac{1}{10} \times M

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