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UNO [17]
2 years ago
7

Why might the term red hot be misleading? (relating to stars)

Physics
1 answer:
Allushta [10]2 years ago
3 0

red hot is hot, but other colours are even hotter. stars may be hotter than red hot.

there is also something calle the red shift.

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A failure of the red-sensitive nerves in the eye to respond to light properly causes
allochka39001 [22]
<span>Color blindness is the failure of the red sensitive nerves in the eye that don't respond to light properly.</span>
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2 years ago
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Plz help..During takeoff a plane accelerates at 4m/s^2 and takes 40s to reach takeoff speed.
matrenka [14]

Answer:

The velocity of the plane at take off is 160 m/s.

The distance travel by the plane in that time is 3200 meter.

Explanation:

Given:

Acceleration, a = 4 m/s²

Time, t = 40 s

u = 0 i .e initial velocity

To Find:

velocity , v = ?

distance , s =?

Solution:

we have first Kinematic equation

v = u + at

∴ v = 0 + 4×40

∴ v = 160 m/s

Now by Third Kinematic equation

s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^{2}

∴ s = 0 + 0.5 × 4× 40²

∴ s = 3200 meter

3 0
3 years ago
A perpetual motion machine can never be built because it is not possible to eliminate
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Answer:

D. Friction

Explanation:

Friction is a force that opposes motion. So a perpetual motion machine can never be built because it is impossible to eliminate frictional force. It can only be reduced

8 0
3 years ago
A 5kg box is being pulled for a force of 20 n and is sliding with an acceleration of 2 m/s. Find the coefficient of friction
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

Coefficient of friction = 0.5

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of box = 5 kg

Force applied = 20 N

Acceleration = 2 m/s²

Find:

Coefficient of friction

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Friction force = Mass x Acceleration.

Friction force =  5 x 2

Friction force = 10 N

Coefficient of friction = Friction force / Force applied

Coefficient of friction = 10 / 20

Coefficient of friction = 0.5

3 0
2 years ago
Given a die, would it be more likely to get a single 6 in six rolls, at least two 6s in twelve rolls, or at least one-hundred 6s
vichka [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

In first case we are interested in one time 6 in six rolls

Thus probability = number of chances required/Total chances

= 1/6

Similarly in the second case probability = 2/12 = 1/6

In the same way in last case probability = 100/600 = 1/6

The probability is the same . Thus all the cases has equal chances  

4 0
3 years ago
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