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Crazy boy [7]
3 years ago
10

8-14 A Cu-30% Zn alloy tensile bar has a strain-hardening coefficient of 0.50. The bar, which has an initial diameter of 1 cm an

d an initial gage length of 3 cm, fails at an engineering stress of 120 MPa. At the moment of fracture, the gage length is 3.5 cm and the diameter is 0.926 cm. No necking occurred. Calculate the true stress when the true strain is 0.05 cm/cm.
Physics
1 answer:
77julia77 [94]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The true stress at true strain 0.05cm/cm is 80MPa

Explanation:

Given that

the strength coefficient is K

true strain is ε

strain hardening exponent is n

initial diameter of bar is d = 1cm, (10mm)

tensile force is F

engineering stress(S) = 120

the engineering stress(S) = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(d^2) }

To find force (F) =

                    120 = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(100^{2} )}

                     F = 120 * (π/4) * (100)

                     F = 9425N

Calculate the true strain  (ε) = In (l₀ / l₁)

where

l₀ =  initial length of the metallic bar = 3cm

l₁ = final length of metallic bar = 3.5cm

ε = In (3.5 / 3)

  = In 1.1667

  = 0.154cm/cm

Calculate the true stress (σ) at fracture point

          = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(d^2) }}

tensile force is F and final diameter of bar is d₁ (d in the eqn)

Substitute 9425 N for F and 0.926 cm (9.26mm) for d₁ (d in the eqn)

σ = \frac{9425}{\frac{\pi }{4}(9.26^2) }}

   = 140MPa

To find the strength coefficient (K) of the material bar

K = \frac{140}{\sqrt{0.154} }

K = \frac{140}{0.3925}

   = 356.75MPa

To calculate the true stress σ true strain of 0.05cm/cm

K  = 356.75MPa

σ = 356.75(0.05)^0^.^5

  = 356.75 ( 0.2236)

  = 80MPa

The true stress at true strain 0.05cm/cm is 80MPa

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(b) 9.8 m/s upward

We can find the velocity of the ball 1 s before reaching its highest point by using the equation:

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

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a = g = -9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration due to gravity, which is negative since it points downward

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(c) -9.8 m/s

The change in velocity during the 1-s interval is given by

\Delta v = v -u

where

v = 0 is the final velocity (at the highest point)

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Substituting, we find

\Delta v = 0 - (+9.8 m/s)=-9.8 m/s

(d) 9.8 m/s downward

We can find the velocity of the ball 1 s after reaching its highest point by using again the equation:

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

where this time we have

a = g = -9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration due to gravity, still negative

v  is the final velocity (1 s after reaching the highest point)

u = 0 is the initial velocity (at the highest point)

t = 1 s is the time interval

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and the negative sign means it points downward.

(e) -9.8 m/s

The change in velocity during the 1-s interval is given by

\Delta v = v -u

where here we have

v = -9.8 m/s is the final velocity (1 s after reaching the highest point)

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Substituting, we find

\Delta v = -9.8 m/s - 0=-9.8 m/s

(f) -19.6 m/s

The change in velocity during the overall 2-s interval is given by

\Delta v = v -u

where in this case we have:

v = -9.8 m/s is the final velocity (1 s after reaching the highest point)

u = +9.8 m/s is the initial velocity (1 s before reaching the highest point)

Substituting, we find

\Delta v = -9.8 m/s - (+9.8 m/s)=-19.6 m/s

(g) -9.8 m/s^2

There is always one force acting on the ball during the motion: the force of gravity, which is given by

F=mg

where

m is the mass of the ball

g = -9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration due to gravity

According to Newton's second law, the resultant of the forces acting on the body is equal to the product of mass and acceleration (a), so

mg = ma

which means that the acceleration is

a= g = -9.8 m/s^2

and the negative sign means it points downward.

7 0
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