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Mila [183]
3 years ago
9

Rogue Drafting has debt with a market value of​ $450,000, preferred stock with a market value of​ $150,000, and common stock wit

h a market value of​ $350,000. If debt has a cost of​ 8%, preferred stock a cost of​ 10%, common stock a cost of​ 12%, and the firm has a tax rate of​ 30%, what is the​ WACC?
Business
1 answer:
defon3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

the  WACC is 8.65%.

Explanation:

Total firm capital = $450,000 + $150,000 + $350,000

                            = $950,000

Weight of debt in the capital structure = $450,000/ $950,000

                                                                = 47.37%

Weight of preferred stock in the capital structure

= $150,000/ $950,000

= 15.79%

Weight of common stock in the capital structure

= $350,000/ $950,000

= 36.84%  

The weighted average cost of capital is calculated using the below formula:

WACC= Wd*Kd(1 - t) + Wps*Kps + We*Ke

where:

Wd = Percentage of debt in the capital structure.

Kd = The before tax cost of debt

Wps = Percentage of preferred stock in the capital structure

Kps = Cost of preferred stock

We = Percentage of common stock in the capital structure

Ke = The cost of common stock

T = Tax rate

WACC = 47.37%*8%*(1 – 0.30) + 0.1579*10% + 36.84%*12%

           = 2.65272% + 1.5790% + 4.4208%

           = 8.65252%

Therefore, the  WACC is 8.65%.

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At the beginning of the month, you owned $8,000 of General Dynamics, $7,000 of Starbucks, and $5,000 of Nike. The monthly return
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

= $406.6

Explanation:

To calculate return of portfolio we first calculate weight of each asset

this can be done by finding total investment and then dividing each asset by total investment.

Total investment = 8000 + 7000 + 5000 = $20,000

General Dynamics     8000/20000 = 0.4 = W1

Starbucks                    7000/20000 = 0.35 = W2

Nike                             5000/20000 = 0.25 = W3

Now for portfolio return we can use the formula

P(r) = W1 * (Return on W1 asset) + W2 * (Return on W2 asset) + W3 * (Return on W3 asset)

So,

P(r) = 0.4 * (0.0680) + 0.35 * (-0.0152) + 0.25 * (-0.0062)

This gives us

Total Return % = 0.02033 or 2.033%

Simply multiply this cumulative weight to total portfolio worth

Total Return in $ = 0.02033 * 20000  = $406.6

Hope that helps.

8 0
3 years ago
The type of action that asks how and why performance deviated is called basic corrective action. corporate downsizing. profit di
asambeis [7]

Answer:

The type of action that asks how and why performance deviated is called BASIC CORRECTIVE ACTON.

Explanation:

Basic corrective action are Corrective action that looks at how and why performance deviated before correcting the source of deviation.

Basic Corrective Action - Essential restorative activity that takes a gander at how and why execution veered off before remedying the wellspring of deviation. It's not unusual for supervisors to legitimize that they don't have opportunity to discover the wellspring of an issue (fundamental restorative activity) and keep on ceaselessly "put out flames" with prompt remedial activity.

3 0
3 years ago
Assume that a piece of land is currently valued at $50,000. If this piece of land is expected to appreciate at an annual rate of
Luda [366]

Answer:

The correct answer is $132,664.89.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Present value (PV) = $50,000

Rate of interest (r) = 5%

Time period (n) = 20 Years

So, we can calculate future value by using following formula:

Future value = PV × (1 + r)^(n)

= $50000 × ( 1 + 5% )^20

= $50000 × (1 + 0.05)^20

= $132,664.89

Hence, After 20 years land will be worth $132,664.89.

5 0
2 years ago
A T-bill that is 290 days from maturity is selling for $96,040. The T-bill has a face value of $100,000.
umka2103 [35]

Answer: a 0.049, 0.05 and 0.05 or 5%

b 0.039, 0.041 and 0.041 or 4%

Explanation:

Ai discounted yield = [(Face value - purchase price)/Face value] * 360/ maturity

Discount yield =:[(100000 - 96040)/100000] * 360/290

= 0.0396* 1.24

= 0.049

ii. Bond equivalent yield (BEY) = [(Face value - purchase price)/purchase value] * 365/M

BEY= [(100000 - 96040)/96040] * 365/290

BEY = 0.05

iii EAR = [(1+BEY/n)exp n - 1)

EAR = [(1 + 0.05/(365/290)) exp (360/290) - 1]

EAR = [(1 + 0.05/1.26) exp (1.26) - 1

EAR = (1.04) exp (1.26) - 1

EAR = 0.05 or 5%

The same formula are applied for the B part

Discount yield = [(100000-96040)/100000] * 360/365

Discount yield = 0.0396 * 0.986

= 0.039

B ii. BEY = [(100000 - 96040)/96040] * 365/365

BEY = 0.041 × 1

BEY = 0.041

B iii. EAR = [(1 + 0.041/(365/365))exp (365/365) - 1

EAR = (1 + 0.41) - 1

EAR = 0.041 or 4%

4 0
3 years ago
At what rate per cent per annum will 4000 yield an interest of 410 in 2 years?​
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

5%

Explanation:

The applicable formula is A = P( 1 + r) ^ n

where A= amount: P is the principal, r, interest rate, n time

In this case,

A = principal + interest = Rs 410 { Rs 4000 + Rs410}

P= Rs 4000

r= ?

n= 2

r is?

4410 = 4000(1 + r) ^2

(1 + i)^ 2 = 4410/4000

(1 + i)^ 2 = 1.1025

1 + i = √1.1025

1 + i = 1.05

i = 1.05 - 1

i = 0.05

0.05 × 100 = 5%

5 0
3 years ago
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