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Harrizon [31]
3 years ago
6

If a number has an infinite amount of 0's on the end of it, can I shorten it to just one 0?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alex777 [14]3 years ago
7 0

yea just put a line over the 0 to indicate it's infinite

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Question 11-(3 marks available)
klasskru [66]

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5 0
1 year ago
The table shows the outputs, y, for different inputs, x:
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Part A:
Yes, the data represent a function because there is at least one x-value for every y-value.

Part B:
When x=6 in the input-output table, y=14. When x=6 in the relation f(x)=7x-15, f(x)=7(6)-15=27. <span>The equation has a greater value when x=6.

Part C:</span>
Set f(x) equal to 6 in the equation:
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3 0
3 years ago
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