Answer:
4 2/3 ÷ 3 1/3= 1 2/5
Step-by-step explanation:
First, you turn the mixed terms into an improper fraction like this
4 2/3 → 14/3 because when you multiply 4 times 3 equaling 12 then having 2 then adding that you get 14/3.
3 1/3 → 10/3 because when you multiply 3*3=9 then having 1 and adding that you get 10/3.
Then, you do KCF which stands for <u>Keep Change Flip</u> so for this you would do: 14/3 ÷ 10/3 → 14/3 × 3/10
14 × 3 = 42 and 3 × 10= 30
Now being 42/30 this is considered an improper fraction in which you have to transform it into a mixed number like this:
(For this you need to find the greatest common factor)
42/30 → 42 and 30 greatest common factor is 6 because they are divisible and factor of 6.
Now you divide both the denominator and the numerator y 6 like this:
42 ÷ 6= 7
30 ÷ 6= 5
Now we have 7/5, this is still an improper number so we see how many times 7 can go to 5 which is once. So we have 1 as whole number, now we put the reminder as the numenator of the mix fraction keeping 5 as being the denominator.
Overall, We have our answer 1 2/5
I hope this helps :D
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
He forgot the scale. It is 2 inches longer on the graph, but each inch represents 1/4 mile. So it is 2 quarter miles, or 1/2 mile
Answer:
At simple interest it will be 939+939×6×0.08=$1389.72.
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
ATQ,
Let d be the number of kilograms of dark chocolate she buys and m be the number of kilograms of milk chocolate she buys.
She needs to buy 120 kg of chocolate in total for her next order, and her recipe calls for twice the amount of dark chocolate as milk chocolate.
So,
m = 2d .....(1)
m + d = 120 ...(2)
We can also solve the above equations,
Put m = 2d in equation (2)
2d + d = 120
3d=120
d = 40
Put d = 40 in equation (1)
m = 2(40)
m = 80
Hence, she will need 40 kg of dark chocolate and 80 kg of milk chocolate.
First one is -8.
Second one, I can't tell because I don't see it
