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irga5000 [103]
3 years ago
7

A runaway railroad car, with mass 30x10^4 kg, coasts across a level track at 2.0 m/s when it collides with a spring loaded bumpe

r at the end of the track. If the spring constant of the bumper is 2x10^6 N/m, what is the maximum compression of the spring during the collision? (Assume collision is elastic)
Physics
2 answers:
Natalija [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

0.775 m

Explanation:

As the car collides with the bumper, all the kinetic energy of the car (K) is converted into elastic potential energy of the bumper (U):

U=K\\frac{1}{2}kx^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2

where we have

k=2\cdot 10^6 N/m is the spring constant of the bumper

x is the maximum compression of the bumper

m=30\cdot 10^4 kg is the mass of the car

v=2.0 m/s is the speed of the car

Solving for x, we find the maximum compression of the spring:

x=\sqrt{\frac{mv^2}{k}}=\sqrt{\frac{(30\cdot 10^4 kg)(2.0 m/s)^2}{2\cdot 10^6 N/m}}=0.775 m

Arada [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.6 m

Explanation:

The law of conservation of energy states that:

\Delta E_m=0

The mechanical energy (E_m) is the sum of the kinetic energy and the potential energy:

\Delta K+\Delta U=0\\K_f-K_i+U_f-U_i=0\\\frac{mv_f^2}{2}-\frac{mv_i^2}{2}+\frac{kx_f^2}{2}-\frac{kx_i^2}{2}=0

U_i is zero since the spring is not initially compressed and K_f is zero since all kinetic energy becomes potentital energy:

\frac{kx_f^2}{2}=\frac{mv_i^2}{2}

Finally, we solve for x and replace the given values:

x_f^2=\frac{mv_i^2}{k}\\x_f=\sqrt{\frac{mv_i^2}{k}}\\x_f=\sqrt{\frac{(30*10^4kg)(2\frac{m}{s})^2}{2*10^6\frac{N}{m}}}\\x_f=0.6 m

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To solve this problem we will apply the linear motion kinematic equations, which describe the change in velocity, depending on the acceleration and the distance traveled, that is,

v_f^2 = v_i^2 +2ah

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h= 121 ft

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5 0
3 years ago
A train is moving along a horizontal track. A pendulum suspended from the roof makes an angle of 4° with the vertical. If g=10m/
nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

Train accaleration = 0.70 m/s^2

Explanation:

We have a pendulum (presumably simple in nature) in an accelerating train. As the train accelerates, the pendulum is going move in the opposite direction due to inertia. The force which causes this movement has the same accaleration as that of the train. This is the basis for the problem.

Start by setting up a free body diagram of all the forces in play: The gravitational force on the pendulum (mg), the force caused by the pendulum's inertial resistance to the train(F_i), and the resulting force of tension caused by the other two forces (F_r).

Next, set up your sum of forces equations/relationships. Note that the sum of vertical forces (y-direction) balance out and equal 0. While the horizontal forces add up to the total mass of the pendulum times it's accaleration; which, again, equals the train's accaleration.

After doing this, I would isolate the resulting force in the sum of vertical forces, substitute it into the horizontal force equation, and solve for the acceleration. The problem should reduce to show that the acceleration is proportional to the gravity times the tangent of the angle it makes.

I've attached my work, comment with any questions.

Side note: If you take this end result and solve for the angle, you'll see that no matter how fast the train accelerates, the pendulum will never reach a full 90°!

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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the only difference between A and D is the selection of the reference frame positive direction.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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