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tamaranim1 [39]
3 years ago
9

Plss help me!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
lakkis [162]3 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

The problem statement says λ<1.  If this is true, then the cannonball is slower than the boat, and it will never reach the boat.  So I assume it's actually λ>1.

If we say t is the amount of time, then the boat travels south a distance of ut, and the cannonball travels a distance of λut.

v = λut

ut = v/λ

Using Pythagorean theorem:

d² + (ut)² > v²

d² + (v/λ)² > v²

λ²d² + v² > λ²v²

λ²d² > (λ² − 1) v²

λ² / (λ² − 1) > (v/d)²

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Answer: \dfrac{^{12}C_{6}\times^{40}C_3}{^{52}C_9} or  \dfrac{228}{91885} .

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : A poker hand consisting of 9 cards is dealt from a standard deck of 52 cards.

The total number of cards in a deck 52

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Number of cards not face cards = 40

The total number of combinations of drawing 9 cards out of 52 cards = ^{52}C_9

Now , the combination of 9 cards such that exactly 6 of them are  face cards =  ^{12}C_{6}\times^{40}C_3

Now , the probability that the hand contains exactly 6 face cards will be :-

\dfrac{^{12}C_{6}\times^{40}C_3}{^{52}C_9}

=\dfrac{\dfrac{12!}{6!6!}\times\dfrac{40!}{3!37!}}{\dfrac{52!}{9!\times43!}}\ \ [\because\ ^nC_r=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}]\\\\=\dfrac{228}{91885}

Hence, the probability that the hand contains exactly 6 face cards. is  \dfrac{228}{91885} .

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