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nevsk [136]
3 years ago
13

Which best explains why graphite is a good lubricant? Carbon atoms form strong bonds within each graphite layer but weak bonds b

etween layers. Carbon atoms in graphite form alternating single and double bonds. Each carbon atom in graphite forms weak covalent bonds with three other carbon atoms.
Physics
2 answers:
lora16 [44]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Carbon atoms form strong bonds within each graphite layer but weak bonds between layers.

Explanation:

Graphite is known as solid lubricant which means it is a lubricant which is in the solid state form.

Here we know that lubricant has function to make the relative movement very smooth or easy.

So here in structure of graphite it is formed in such a way that all carbon atoms in graphite layer are bonded strongly with each other. While two layers of graphite are weakly bonded to each other

So here two layers of graphite can easily slide over each other which is useful for the function of lubricants

So correct answer will be

Carbon atoms form strong bonds within each graphite layer but weak bonds between layers.

ra1l [238]3 years ago
5 0

Graphite is great lubricant because each carbon atom forms weak covalent bonds with three other carbon atoms.

Diamond and graphite both are entirely made up of carbon but both the elements are completely different because of the bonding of carbon atoms. In graphite the carbon atoms form weak covalent with the other three carbon atom due to which there is less or no force between the atoms, and makes the graphite very soft and slippery, and graphite act as lubricant.

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Mechanical advantage is the measure of the force amplification achieved by using a tool , mechanical device or machine . The machine preserve the input power and supply trade off force. against movement to obtain a desired amplification in the output force .

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3 years ago
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Why is copper a pure substance? A. Because it is an element B. Because it is a compound C. Because it is a homogenous mixture​
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A) because it is an element.
Explanation: usually when they say pure substance they mean pure element.
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3 years ago
Relative humidity _______.
horsena [70]

Answer: option d. gives the percentage of water molecules in the air.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
16 grams of ice at –32°C is to be changed to steam at 182°C. The entire process requires _____ cal. Round your answer to the nea
ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

12432 cal.

Explanation:

The process to change ice at -32 ºC to steam at 182 ºC can be divided into 5 steps:

1. Heat the ice to 0 ºC, which is the fusion temperature.

2. Melt the ice (obtaining liquid water), which is a process at constant pressure and temperature, so the liquid obtained is also at 0ºC.

3. Heat the liquid water from 0 ºC to 100 ºC, which is the vaporization normal temperature of the water.

4. Vaporization of all the water; this is also a process that occurs at constant pressure and temperature, so the produced steam will be at 100ºC.

5. Heat the steam from 100 ºC to 182 ºC.

Each process has a required energy, and the sum of the energy required for each and all of the steps is the total amount of energy required for the whole process:

E_T=E_1+E_2+E_3+E_4+E_5

E_1 is a heating process for the ice, so we know that the energy required is proportional to the temperature difference through the specific heat:

E_1=m*Cp_{sol}*(T_2-T_1)\\E_1=16g*0.5\frac{cal}{gC}*(0-(-32))=256cal

E_2 is a phase change process, so we do not use the specific heat (sensible heat), but the fusion heat (latent heat), so:

E_{2}=m*dh_{f}={16g*80\frac{cal}{g}}=1280cal

Analogously,

E_3=m*Cp_{liq}*(T_3-T_2)=16g*1.00\frac{cal}{gC}*(100-0)C = 1600 cal

E_{4}=m*{dh_{vap}}\\\\E_4=16g*540\frac{cal}{g} =8640cal

E_{5}=m*Cp_{vap}*(T_{5}-T_{4})\\E_{5}={16g*0.5\frac{cal}{gK}*(182-100)K}=656cal

Finally, the total energy required is:

E_T=256cal+1280cal+1600cal+8640cal+656cal\\E_T=12432cal

8 0
3 years ago
A magnet is placed inside a small cube which is placed inside a larger cube which has eight times the volume of the smaller cube
alexdok [17]

Answer:

The magnetic flux through the two cubes is zero in both cases

Explanation:

To answer this question, we have to think about the nature of magnetic fields.

In fact, we know that magnetic sources always exist only as magnetic dipoles: this means that a magnet always has a north pole (from which the magnetic field lines go away) and a south pole (into which the magnetic field lines return). There exist no magnetic monopoles: even when we cut a magnet in a half, we end up having two magnets, each of them having its own north pole and south pole.

A direct consequence of this fact is that if we take a closed surface, such as a cube surrounding the magnet, the magnetic flux through the cube is always zero. This is because all the field lines going out the surface of the cube always return inside the cube on another point. Since the magnetic flux basically represents the number of field lines passing through the surface of the cube, this means that the net positive magnetic flux (lines going out of the cube) is equal to the net negative magnetic flux (lines going into the cube).

As a result, the magnetic flux is zero for both the smaller cube and the larger cube.

4 0
4 years ago
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