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3 years ago

A machine has mechanical advantage 2.What does that mean

Physics

2 answers:

Delicious77 [7]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The ratio of load overcome by the machine to the effort applied is called mechanical advantage.

EleoNora [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Mechanical advantage is the measure of the force amplification achieved by using a tool , mechanical device or machine . The machine preserve the input power and supply trade off force. against movement to obtain a desired amplification in the output force .

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Nadusha1986 [10]

For the First answer, It would be "A"

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I hope this helps. :)

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3 years ago

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Which of these is the movement of material cause by the interaction between worm and cool material?

mr Goodwill [35]

Convection Current
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3 years ago

A 5kg block is pulled across a table by a horizontal force of 40 N with a frictional force of 8 N opposing the motion. Draw a fo

Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

Net force on the block is 32 N.

Acceleration of the object is 6.4 m/s².

Explanation:

Let the acceleration of the object be $a$ m/s².

Given:

Mass of the block is, $m=5\ kg$

Force of pull is, $F=40\ N$

Frictional force on the block is, $f=8\ N$

The free body diagram of the object is shown below.

From the figure, the net force in the forward direction is given as:

$F_{net}=F-f=40-8=32\ N$

Now, from Newton's second law of motion, net force is equal to the product of mass and acceleration. So,

$F_{net}=ma\\32=5a\\a=\frac{32}{5}=6.4\ m/s^2$

Therefore, the acceleration of the object in the forward direction is 6.4 m/s².

3 0

3 years ago

The four-wheel-drive all-terrain vehicle has a mass of 385 kg with center of mass G2. The driver has a mass of 75 kg with center

jenyasd209 [6]

The coefficient of friction is missing and it has a value of μ = 0.4

Answer:

a = 3.924 m/s²

Explanation:

I've attached the kinematic free body diagram.

Taking the sum of all upward and downward forces,

EFy = 0;

N1 + N2 - m_p•g - m_v•g = 0

N1 + N2 = m_p•g + m_v•g

Where;

N1 and N2 are the normal reactions at the wheels

m_p is the mass of the driver

m_v is the mass of the vehicle

g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Plugging in the relevant values in the question,we obtain;

N1 + N2 = (385 + 75) x 9.81

N1 + N2 = 4512.6N - - - (eq1)

Now, taking sum of all horizontal forces;

EFx = (m_p + m_v) x a

So,

μ(N1 + N2) = (mp + mv) x a

Thus,

0.4(N1 + N2) = (385 + 75)a

0.4(N1 + N2) = 460a

N1 + N2 = 1150a

From eq(1),N1 + N2 = 4512.6N

Thus,

1150a = 4512.6N

a = 4512.6/1150

a = 3.924 m/s²

Therefore, the acceleration, a = 3.924 m/s²

7 0

3 years ago

As a diligent physics student, you carry out physics experiments at every opportunity. At this opportunity, you carry a 1.33 m l

deff fn [24]

Answer: 62 μT

Explanation:

Given

Length of rod, l = 1.33 m

Velocity of rod, v = 3.19 m/s

Induced emf, e = 0.263*10^-3 V

Using Faraday's law, the induced emf of a rod can be gotten by the formula

e = blv where,

e = induced emf of the rod

b = magnetic field of the rod

l = length of the rod

v = velocity of the rod. On substituting, we have

0.263*10^-3 = b * 1.33 * 3.19

0.263*10^-3 = b * 4.2427

b = 0.263*10^-3 / 4.2427

b = 0.0000620 T

b = 62 μT

Thus, the strength of the magnetic field is 62 μT

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A machine has mechanical advantage 2.What does that mean​

A machine has mechanical advantage 2.What does that mean