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Semenov [28]
4 years ago
13

A magnet is placed inside a small cube which is placed inside a larger cube which has eight times the volume of the smaller cube

How does the net magnetic flux through the large cube compare to that through the smaller cube?
Physics
1 answer:
alexdok [17]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The magnetic flux through the two cubes is zero in both cases

Explanation:

To answer this question, we have to think about the nature of magnetic fields.

In fact, we know that magnetic sources always exist only as magnetic dipoles: this means that a magnet always has a north pole (from which the magnetic field lines go away) and a south pole (into which the magnetic field lines return). There exist no magnetic monopoles: even when we cut a magnet in a half, we end up having two magnets, each of them having its own north pole and south pole.

A direct consequence of this fact is that if we take a closed surface, such as a cube surrounding the magnet, the magnetic flux through the cube is always zero. This is because all the field lines going out the surface of the cube always return inside the cube on another point. Since the magnetic flux basically represents the number of field lines passing through the surface of the cube, this means that the net positive magnetic flux (lines going out of the cube) is equal to the net negative magnetic flux (lines going into the cube).

As a result, the magnetic flux is zero for both the smaller cube and the larger cube.

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3 years ago
Water moves through a constricted pipe in steady, ideal flow. At the
Irina-Kira [14]

A) Speed in the lower section: 0.638 m/s

B) Speed in the higher section: 2.55 m/s

C) Volume flow rate: 1.8\cdot 10^{-3} m^3/s

Explanation:

A)

To solve the problem, we can use Bernoulli's equation, which states that

p_1 + \rho g h_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho v_1^2 = p_2 + \rho g h_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho v_2^2

where

p_1=1.75\cdot 10^4 Pa is the pressure in the lower section of the tube

h_1 = 0 is the heigth of the lower section

\rho=1000 kg/m^3 is the density of water

g=9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

v_1 is the speed of the water in the lower pipe

p_2 is the pressure in the higher section

h_2 = 0.250 m is the height in the higher pipe

v_2 is hte speed in the higher section

We can re-write the equation as

v_1^2-v_2^2=\frac{2(p_2-p_1)+\rho g h_2}{\rho} (1)

Also we can use the continuity equation, which state that the volume flow rate is constant:

A_1 v_1 = A_2 v_2

where

A_1 = \pi r_1^2 is the cross-section of the lower pipe, with

r_1 = 3.00 cm =0.03 m is the radius of the lower pipe (half the diameter)

A_2 = \pi r_2^2 is the cross-section of the higher pipe, with

r_2 = 1.50 cm = 0.015 m (radius of the higher pipe)

So we get

r_1^2 v_1 = r_2^2 v_2

And so

v_2 = \frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2}v_1 (2)

Substituting into (1), we find the speed in the lower section:

v_1^2-(\frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2})^2v_1^2=\frac{2(p_2-p_1)+\rho g h_2}{\rho}\\v_1=\sqrt{\frac{2(p_2-p_1+\rho g h_2)}{\rho(1-\frac{r_1^4}{r_2^4})}}=0.638 m/s

B)

Now we can use equation (2) to find the speed in the lower section:

v_2 = \frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2}v_1

Substituting

v1 = 0.775 m/s

And the values of the radii, we find:

v_2=\frac{0.03^2}{0.015^2}(0.638)=2.55 m/s

C)

The volume flow rate of the water passing through the pipe is given by

V=Av

where

A is the cross-sectional area

v is the speed of the water

We can take any point along the pipe since the volume  flow rate is constant, so

r_1=0.03 cm

v_1=0.638 m/s

Therefore, the volume flow rate is

V=\pi r_1^2 v_1 = \pi (0.03)^2 (0.638)=1.8\cdot 10^{-3} m^3/s

Learn more about pressure in a liquid:

brainly.com/question/9805263

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3 years ago
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AlekseyPX

Answer:

160 kg

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Explanation:

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m_2 = Mass of second car

u_1 = Initial Velocity of first car = 14 m/s

u_2 = Initial Velocity of second car = 0 m/s

v_1 = Final Velocity of first car = -2 m/s

v_2 = Final Velocity of second car

For perfectly elastic collision

m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=m_{1}v_{1}+m_{2}v_{2}\\\Rightarrow m_2v_2=m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}-m_{1}v_{1}\\\Rightarrow m_2v_2=120\times 14+m_2\times 0-(120\times -2)\\\Rightarrow m_2v_2=1920\\\Rightarrow m_2=\frac{1920}{v_2}

Applying in the next equation

v_2=\frac{2m_1}{m_1+m_2}u_{1}+\frac{m_2-m_1}{m_1+m_2}u_2\\\Rightarrow v_2=\frac{2\times 120}{120+\frac{1920}{v_2}}\times 14+\frac{m_2-m_1}{m_1+m_2}\times 0\\\Rightarrow \left(120+\frac{1920}{v_2}\right)v_2=3360\\\Rightarrow 120v_2+1920=3360\\\Rightarrow v_2=\frac{3360-1920}{120}\\\Rightarrow v_2=12\ m/s

m_2=\frac{1920}{v_2}\\\Rightarrow m_2=\frac{1920}{12}\\\Rightarrow m_2=160\ kg

Mass of second car = 160 kg

Velocity of second car = 12 m/s

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In one experiment, the students allow the block to oscillate after stretching the spring a distance A. If the potential energy s
atroni [7]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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We substitute

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3 years ago
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