Answer:
After 3 visits both plans will cost the same.
Step-by-step explanation:
Gym A costs $26.76 plus an additional $4 for each visit.
Gym B has no initial fee but costs $12.92 for each visist.
The cost for gym A can be written as
C= $26.76 + 4(x) where x is the number of visits to the gym A
The cost for gym B can be written as
C= $12.92 (x) where x is the number of visits to the gym B
Both costs will be equal
12.92x= 26.76 +4x
12.92x-4x= 26.76
8.92x= 26.76
x= 26.76/8.92
x= 3
after 3 visits both plans will cost the same.
Check
12.92x= 26.76 +4x
12.92*3= 26.76 +12
38.76= 38.76
It is C prob i need point lol i’m sorry
Answer:
$378,000
Step-by-step explanation:
The computation of the bad debt expense for the year is shown below:
Bad debt expense = Outstanding account receivable × estimated percentage given - credit balance of allowance for doubtful account
= $6,500,000 × 0.06 - $12,000
= $390,000 - $12,000
= $378,000
We simply deduct the credit balance from the estimated balance so that the correct amount could arrive
Number of nickels plus number of dimes equals total number of coins
so
n + d = 40
then they tell us that "there are seven times as many dimes as there are nickels"
this translates to
d = 7n
we then plug that into our first equation
and get
n + 7n = 40
then we solve for n
add like terms
8n = 40
then divide both sides by 8
n = 40/8 = 5
therefore Jimmy has 5 nickels
Answer:
The solution to the inequality is:
The solution graph is also attached below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
We are given the expression
To determine
Solve for x
Given the expression
Subtract 5 from both sides
Simplify
Multiply both sides by 3
Simplify
Thus, we conclude that:
Therefore, the solution to the inequality is:
The solution graph is also attached below.
