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navik [9.2K]
3 years ago
5

A function must be one-to-one to and onto to have an inverse functionA. True B. False

Mathematics
1 answer:
kupik [55]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

To have an inverse, a function must be injective i.e one-one and it must be surjective i.e. onto.

Since if it is not surjective, the function's inverse's domain will have some elements left out which are not mapped to any element in the range of the function's inverse.

So is it true.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Salem High School's winter sports teams WON 72% of their games last season. If the teams played 50 games, how many games did the
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer

Find out the how many games did the teams lose .

To prove

Formula

Percentage = \frac{Part\ value\times 100}{Total\ values}

As given

Salem High School's winter sports teams WON 72% of their games last season.

If the teams played 50 games .

Percentage = 72%

Total value = 50

Put in the formula

72 = \frac{Number\ of\ games\ win\times 100}{50}

Number\ of\ games\ win = \frac{72\times 50}{100}

Number of games win = 36

Number of  games teams loses = Total number of games - number of games win

                                                          = 50 - 36

                                                          = 14

Therefore the number of games  team loses are 14 .



5 0
3 years ago
How do I solve this literal equation? <br> 15 points
kati45 [8]

Answer:

\pi = \frac{A}{2r^2 + 2rh}

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to isolate \pi by taking it common from both terms on the right:

A=2\pi r^2 + 2\pi rh\\A=\pi (2r^2 + 2rh)

Now, since we want \pi in terms of the other variables, we can divide the left hand side (A) by whatever is multiplied with \pi on the right hand side. Then we will have an expression for \pi. Shown below:

A=\pi (2r^2 + 2rh)\\\pi = \frac{A}{2r^2 + 2rh}

This is the xpression for \pi

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3 years ago
The data below are the number of absences and the final grades of 9 randomly selected students from a literature class. find the
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I don't know. I apologize. 
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podryga [215]

Answer:

2/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Each time you play, you get 1 number. Since 8/28 numbers win, you have a 8/28 chance to win if you buy one ticket. 8/28 = 2/7

3 0
3 years ago
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