If the kinetic energy of each ball is equal to that of the other,
then
(1/2) (mass of ppb) (speed of ppb)² = (1/2) (mass of gb) (speed of gb)²
Multiply each side by 2:
(mass of ppb) (speed of ppb)² = (mass of gb) (speed of gb)²
Divide each side by (mass of gb) and by (speed of ppb)² :
(mass of ppb)/(mass of gb) = (speed of gb)²/(speed of ppb)²
Take square root of each side:
√ (ratio of their masses) = ( 1 / ratio of their speeds)²
By trying to do this perfectly rigorously and elegantly, I'm also
using up a lot of space and guaranteeing that nobody will be
able to follow what I have written. Let's just come in from the
cold, and say it the clear, easy way:
If their kinetic energies are equal, then the product of each
mass and its speed² must be the same number.
If one ball has less mass than the other one, then the speed²
of the lighter one must be greater than the speed² of the heavier
one, in order to keep the products equal.
The pingpong ball is moving faster than the golf ball.
The directions of their motions are irrelevant.
Base on my research, as of 2004 The U.S. devours about 20 million barrels of oil a day, according to the CIA. But base on Wikipedia, it says that a normal large tanker can only carry around 2 million barrels of oil. So to supply the U.S with this oil per day, it needs 10 normal large oil tankers.
Answer:
option D) -3m
Explanation:
if 6m is diplaced by -3m then it would be -3+6=3m
feel free to ask if you are confused
A becuz its at da it dont got no wa
Nope.
Energy is directly proportional to frequency. and when you calculate energy, you multiply frequency with a constant number called "Planck's Constant"
E = hf
Hope this helps!