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velikii [3]
3 years ago
11

A golfer takes two putts to sink his ball in the hole. The first putt displaces the ball 6.50 m east, and the second putt displa

ces it 5.90 m south. What displacement would put the ball in the hole in one putt?
Physics
1 answer:
skad [1K]3 years ago
8 0
<h2>Displacement to hole from initial position is 8.78 m at direction 42.23° south of east.</h2>

Explanation:

Let east represent X axis and north represent Y axis.

We need to find what displacement would put the ball in the hole in one putt.

The first putt displaces the ball 6.50 m east

First displacement = 6.50 i m

The second putt displaces it 5.90 m south

Second displacement = -5.90 j m

Total displacement = 6.50 i - 5.90 j

\texttt{Magnitude = }\sqrt{6.50^2+(-5.90)^2}=8.78m\\\\\texttt{Direction = }tan^{-1}\left ( \frac{-5.9}{6.5}\right )=-42.23^0

So displacement to hole from initial position is 8.78 m at direction 42.23° south of east.

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d. e. Study the given diagram and calculate the following: i. work done by load ii. work done by effort iii. M.A iv. V.R v. effi
il63 [147K]

i. The work done by the load is load x distance moved by load.

ii. The work done by effort is effort applied x distance moved by effort.

iii. The mechanical advantage of the simple machine is Load/effort.

iv. The velocity ratio of the simple machine is 2.

v. The efficiency of the machine is M.A/V.R x 100%.

<h3>Work done by the load</h3>

The work done by the load is the product of the load and the distance through which the load is moved. The magnitude is calculated as follows;

Work done by the load = load x distance moved by load

<h3>Work done by effort</h3>

The work done by the effort is the product of the effort and the distance through which the effort is applied. The magnitude is calculated as follows;

Work done by effort = effort applied x distance moved by effort

<h3>Mechanical advantage of the simple machine</h3>

M.A = Load/Effort

<h3>Velocity ratio of the simple machine</h3>

V.R = distance moved by effort / distance moved by load

V.R  = 30 cm/15 cm

V.R = 2

<h3>Efficiency of the machine</h3>

E = (M.A/V.R) x 100%

Thus, the work done by the load is load x distance moved by load.

The work done by effort is effort applied x distance moved by effort.

The mechanical advantage of the simple machine is Load/effort.

The velocity ratio of the simple machine is 2.

The efficiency of the machine is M.A/V.R x 100%.

Learn more about mechanical advantage here: brainly.com/question/25984831

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
If the emf of the battery is 12 v and each resistance is 4 ω, what power is consumed by bulb b?
dlinn [17]
P = V^2/R
= 144/4
= 36 watts
6 0
4 years ago
Three forces act on an object. Two of the forces have the magnitudes 56 N and 27 N, and make angles 53° and 156°, respectively,
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given

Two forces F_1 and F_2 at an angle of \theta _1  \theta _2

F_1=56\ N

F_2=27\ N

\theta _1=53^{\circ}

\theta _2=156^{\circ}

As resultant force is zero therefore horizontal component as well as vertical component of force is zero

\sum F_x=F_1\cos \theta _1+F_2\cos \theta _2+F_3\cos \theta _3

\sum F_x=56\cos 53+27\cos 156+F_3\cos \theta

F_3\cos \theta_3=-9.035\ N----1

\sum F_y=F_1\sin \theta _1+F_2\sin \theta _2+F_3\sin \theta _3

F_3\sin \theta _3=55.704\ N----2

squaring and adding 1 and 2

F_3^2(\cos ^2\theta _3+\sin^2\theta _3)=86.583+3102.93

F_3=56.47\ N

Divide 1 and 2 to get \theta _3

\frac{\sin \theta_3 }{\cos \theta_3 }=\frac{-55.704}{9.305}

\tan \theta_3=-6.16

\theta _3=180-80.78

\theta _3=99.22^{\circ}

 

6 0
3 years ago
In what direction must you pull on the third rope to keep the knot from moving?
Thepotemich [5.8K]
What are the answers?
3 0
3 years ago
What’s the four missing blanks in this diagram?
sergey [27]

Answer:

                                                    Matter

                Pure substances                                        Mixture

Element                         compound         Homogenous           Heterogenous

7 0
4 years ago
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