Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
can you show the whole picture please
I hope you mean 1/5 when you say 1 5. If that's what you mean, then both, Joshua and Melanie, are correct because, both of their equations are the same.
Joshua's - <span>8 ÷ 1/5 = 40 (Since we can divide a number by fraction, we use this rule: keep, change flip. When we use that Joshua's equation turns into 8 * 5/1 = 8*5 = 40, same as Melanie's.)</span>
Answer:
13m
Step-by-step explanation:
because i use calculator soup
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A vertical stretch by a factor of k means that the point (x, y) on the graph of f (x) is transformed to the point (x, ky) on the graph of g(x), where k <1.
If k =1, then same graph we obtain and if k>1 we get a vertically shrink graph.
In our question, there is a vertical stretch of 3. This means new graph would have points as (x,y/3)
i.e. instead of f(x) = y, we have now f(x) = y/3
So transformation is g(x) = 3f(x)
Option A is correct.
2) Here f(x) = 3x+8 is transformed to g(x) =3x+6
i.e. y intercept is reduced by 2 units. Hence there is a translation of 2 units down.
