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Rudik [331]
2 years ago
13

What is 16% of 25? a. 64 b. 16 c. 6 d. 4

Mathematics
1 answer:
valentina_108 [34]2 years ago
3 0
If you would like to know what is 16% of 25, you can calculate this using the following steps:

16% of 25 = 16% * 25 = 16/100 * 25 = 4

Result: 16% of 25 is 4, so the correct result would be d. 4.
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Two farmers each have triangular plots of land in the diagram below with approximate values shown for lengths in feet
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

  • a) Plots are similar
  • b) x= 5577 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Refer to attached</em>

<h3>Question</h3>
  • a) Are the plots of land similar?  
  • b) Find to the exact value of x and rounded to the nearest tenth?
<h3>Solution</h3>

The small triangle have missing angle of 180° - (52° + 58°) = 70°

This is indicating both triangles have same 3 angle measures.

Since all angles are same, the triangles are similar.

<u>Corresponding sides, against corresponding angles are:</u>

  • 6180 and 8240
  • x and 7436

<u>As per property of similarity, the ratio of corresponding sides is same</u>

  • 6180/8240 = x/7436
  • x = 6180*7436/8240
  • x = 5577 feet

4 0
3 years ago
One mile equals approximately 1.6 kilogmeters approximately how many kilometers are in 4 miles
kompoz [17]

Answer:

6.4

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help with this question. Thank you
V125BC [204]
I think the answer is b
3 0
3 years ago
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On Texas Avenue between University Drive and George Bush Drive, accidents occur according to a Poisson process at a rate of thre
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

(a) The probability is 0.6514

(b) The probability is 0.7769

Step-by-step explanation:

If the number of accidents occur according to a poisson process, the probability that x accidents occurs on a given day is:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is the mean number of accidents per day and t is the number of days.

So, for part (a), a is equal to 3/7 and t is equal to 1 day, because there is a rate of 3 accidents every 7 days.

Then, the probability that a given day has no accidents is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{0}}{0!}=0.6514

On the other hand the probability that February has at least one accident with a personal injury is calculated as:

P(x≥1)=1 - P(0)

Where P(0) is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is equivalent to (3/7)(1/8) because that is the mean number of accidents with personal injury per day, and t is equal to 28 because 4 weeks has 28 days, so:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{0}}{0!}=0.2231

Finally, P(x≥1) is:

P(x≥1) = 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769

3 0
3 years ago
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Hatshy [7]

Answer:

is this a question

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
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