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Studentka2010 [4]
3 years ago
11

you push a ball to star it rolling along a "perfectly frictionless" surface. How far will the ball roll

Physics
1 answer:
-BARSIC- [3]3 years ago
6 0
Technically, it should roll forever.
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Alicia is solving a math equation. She is using her _____.
WITCHER [35]
I believe it is C. Medulla 

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4.<br> Inertia is directly related to<br><br> A. Mass<br><br> B. Mice<br><br> C. Movement
Soloha48 [4]

A. Mass

Explanation:

Inertia is a property that is directly related to mass of a body. It can be defined as a property that causes a body to resist change in its state of motion.

  • Newton's first law of motion is known as the law of inertia.
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 Inertia is related to force and it can be calculated using the expression below:

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8 0
4 years ago
State the relative position for the sun and earth during the lunar eclipse (ASAP)
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

Solar eclipses result from the Moon blocking the Sun relative to the Earth; thus Earth, Moon and Sun all lie on a line. Lunar eclipses work the same way in a different order: Moon, Earth and Sun all on a line. In this case the Earth's shadow hides the Moon from view.

8 0
3 years ago
Consider a particle of mass m which can move freely along the x axis from -a/2 to a/2, but which is strictly prohibited from bei
nalin [4]

Answer:

  φ = B sin (2π n/a   x)

Explanation:

In quantum mechanics when a particle moves freely it implies that the potential is zero (V = 0), so its wave function is

     φ = A cos kx + B sin kx

we must place the boundary conditions to determine the value of the constants A and B.

In our case we are told that the particle cannot be outside the boundary given by x = ± a / 2

therefore we must make the cosine part zero, for this the constant A = 0, the wave function remains

    φ = B sin kx

the wave vector is

      k = 2π /λ

now let's adjust the period, in the border fi = 0 therefore the sine function must be zero

         φ (a /2) = 0

          0 = A sin (2π/λ  a/2)

therefore the sine argument is

          2π /λ   a/2 = n π

          λ= a / n

we substitute

          φ = B sin (2π n/a   x)

7 0
3 years ago
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