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pishuonlain [190]
3 years ago
6

Time period is important in accounting. Companies need to report revenue and expenses on their income statement based on what th

ey earned and incurred during the accounting period. Assume the company had invested $100,000 in an interest-bearing investment on September 1st of this year. The investment earns 6% interest, but the interest doesn't get paid out until the end of the first six months. What, if any, interest revenue should the company record on their December 31st year ending income statement of this year
Business
1 answer:
BaLLatris [955]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: $2,000

Explanation:

The question alludes to the Accrual principle of Accounting that states that companies need to report revenue and expenses on their income statement based on what they earned and incurred during the accounting period.

The investment is to earn 6% annually which means that every year it is to show returns of;

= 6% * 100,000

= $6,000

On a monthly basis therefore this should be;

= 6,000 / 12

= $500

They invested on September 1st which means that they would have been invested for 4 months by December 31.

The interest for the year is therefore;

= 4 * 500

= $2,000

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Answer:

(d) Gear is more efficient than Cog.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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Douglas Company issued 5-year bonds on January 1. The 12% bonds have a face value of $35,000,000 and pay interest every January
Blababa [14]

Answer:

Given:

12% bonds have a face value of $35,000,000

Bonds sold for $37,702,483 based on the market interest rate of 10%.

∴

The interest expense on July 1 can be computed as

Interest expense = Bonds sold × Effective market interest rate (\frac{10}{2} = 5%)

= $37,702,483 × .05 (1/2 of the effective interest rate)

= $1,885,124

⇒ The interest expense on July 1 is $1,885,124

4 0
3 years ago
Luxx Inc. currently has assets to $5 million, zero debt, is in the 40 percent federal- plus-state tax bracket, has a net income
kakasveta [241]

Answer: a.)$25 ; b.) $30.96

Explanation:

A.) Stock's current price per share:

Net income = $1,000,000

Dividend paid = 0.40 x $1,000,000 = $400,000

Dividend per share before recapitalization = $400,000 / 200,000 = $2

Price of the share before recapitalization is calculated as:

D1 = $2 × 1.05  = $2.10

P0 = D1/Ke - g

= $2.10/ 0.134 - 0.05

= $25

B.) Portion of equity after recapitalization = (200, 000 x $25) - $1,000,000 = $4,000,000

Portion of debt = $1,000,000

Revised WACC after recapitalization = Ke x E/V + Kd(1-t) x D/V

= 0.145 x $4,000,000/$5,000,000 + 0.11 x (1-0.40) x $1,000,000/$5,000,000

= 0.1292

= 12.92%

Revised net income is calculated as:

Before tax income = $1,000,000/0.60 = $5M

Interest = 0.11 x $1,000,000 = $110,000

Earning before tax = $1556666

40% of tax = $622,666.4

Net income = $933,999.60

Revised dividend = $933,999.60 x 0.40 = $373599.84

DPS = $373599.84/(200,000 - ($1,000,000/$25))

$373599.84/160,000

= $2.335

Revised price of the share after recapitalization:

$2.335 x 1.05 / 0.1292 - 0.05

2.45175 / 0.0792

= $30.96

8 0
3 years ago
Payson Sports, Inc., sells sports equipment to customers. Its fiscal year ends on December 31. The following transactions occurr
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer & Explanation:

Req. A

Journal Entries

a. Debit        Inventory           $250,000

  Credit                Cash                           $90,000

  Credit                Accounts payable     $160,000

Note: Purchase of raw materials with cash and on account.

b. Debit        Wages expense   $184,000

  Credit                 Cash                          $180,300

  Credit                  Wages payable        $3,700

Note: Total salary (180,300 + 3,700)= 184,000 usd. 180,300 were charged over the course of the year, $3,700 only being compensated, thereby the responsibility (salaries payable).

c. Debit        Cash                            $500,000

  Debit        Accounts receivable  $250,000

  Credit                 Sales revenue            $750,000

Note: Offer cash and on account to consumers pillows.

Since the company is a sales business, the expense of the products sold must be registered.

Debit       Cost of goods sold      $485,000

Credit               Inventory                           $485,000

d. Debit      Utilities expense       $17,200

  Credit                   Cash                           $17,200

e. Debit     Cash                             $70,000

  Credit                    Unearned revenue       $70,000

Note: If the service is done in the future and cash is earned now, taxes are reported on an accrual basis as earned, not when the service is conducted.

f. Debit      Utilities expense        $1,930

 Credit           Utilities payable                      $1,930

Note: As it is unpaid, a liability will arise.

Req. B

Accrual accounting framework provides owners, borrowers and other consumers with more accurate and powerful knowledge. This shows distinctly the savings, profits and obligations of the company against its internal and external employees. Owing to the fact that all documents (whether charged or not) were kept independently under an accrual accounting.

5 0
3 years ago
Special Plc has an issued share capital at 1 January 2019 of 1,000,000 ordinary shares of 20p each and 50,000 convertible prefer
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

A. £4.15

B.£4

Explanation:

A. Calculation for the diluted EPS for 2019

Using this formula

2019 Diluted EPS =(Earnings after tax for the year ended-Preferred Dividends)/Total Diluted Shares Outstanding

Let plug in the formula

2019 Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£2.50 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*500/£1,000)+(50,000*£1)]

2019 Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£2.50 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*0.5)+(50,000*£1)]

2019 Diluted EPS=[(£5,000,000-£125,000)/(£1,000,000+£125,000+£50,000)]

2019 Diluted EPS=£4,875,000/£1,175,000

2019 Diluted EPS=£4.15

Therefore 2019 Diluted EPS (Earning per share) will be £4.15

B. Calculation for the diluted EPS assuming that the convertible preference shares were receiving a dividend of £6 per share instead of £2.50.

Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£6 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*500/£1,000)+(50,000*£1)]

Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£6 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*0.5)+(50,000*£1)]

Diluted EPS=[(£5,000,000-£300,000)/(£1,000,000+£125,000+£50,000)]

Diluted EPS=£4,700,000/£1,175,000

Diluted EPS=£4

Therefore the Diluted EPS (Earning per share) will be £4

6 0
3 years ago
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