9514 1404 393
Answer:
₹14000
Step-by-step explanation:
Let c represent the cost price, and m represent the marked price.
c × (1 +40%) = m
m × (1 -15%) - c = ₹1900
Using the first expression for m, the second equation becomes ...
1.40c×0.85 -c = ₹1900
0.19c = ₹1900
c = ₹1900/0.19 = ₹10000
Then the marked price was ...
m = 1.40c = 1.40×₹10000 = ₹14000
The marked price was ₹14000.
_____
The selling price was ₹11900.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
6.0
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is

.
Explanation:
In order to subtract the fractions, we must make them like fractions. To do this, the denominators must be the same by multiplying (only). Since the first fraction is

, 3 can be multiplied by 2 to get 6, which is the other fraction, we can multiply it. Whatever you do to the denominator you must do to the numerator. Now multiply 2 by the numerator (10) to get

. Now we can subtract the fractions

and

to get 13/6. Since this fraction is not in mixed fraction form yet, we must do that first. goes into 13 twice, so the whole number is 2 and there is still 1 left, making the fraction

. Therefore, the difference is 2

.
The price of gasoline in this week is 1.05g. Option C
Step-by-step explanation:
Given,
The price of a gallon of gasoline = g in last week.
The price of gasoline increased by 5% this week.
To find the price of gasoline this week.
Formula
If an original price of an object a increased by b% the final price will be = a×
So,
The price of gasoline in this week = g×1.05 = 1.05g
[ Please note: Here option C and E have same value. So, both are correct].