Answer:
16
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope you get it.
You would just convert 5 1/3 into a improper fraction 16/3=16/3
Answer:
m = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
We can suppose that the number we are looking for is for example 5.
(we can do so because the probability is the same for each number - it'sna fair dice)
For the first toss the probability we have 5 is 1/6 (we have 6 numbers on the dice and number 5 is just one of the possible 6 outcomes).
For the second toss the probability we have 5 is again 1/6.
For the rest of 3 tosses we don'tcare what number we will get( we have our two consecutive 5s), so all of the outcomes for the rest of 3 tosses are good for us (probability is 6/6 = 1)
Threfore, the probability to get two consecutive 5s is 1/6 * 1/6 * 1 * 1 * 1 = 1/36.
We can see that m = 1.
Multiply 7x6 since when using pemdas, multiplication and division can be inverted, i.e. if multiplication is before division then you multiply and vice versa.
Hope this helps!
m = t2.5
So money equals to tickets sold*2.5
2.5 is each tickets price
If you ask how I found;
$100 / 40 tickets = $2.5
