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Art [367]
3 years ago
12

Need help 8387.02 + 744.8

Mathematics
2 answers:
vivado [14]3 years ago
5 0
The answer would be <span>9131.82</span>
True [87]3 years ago
3 0
9131.82 is the answer to the question

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Please help!! I'll give brainleist
anygoal [31]

Answer:

m + g < 40

12m + 14g  > 250

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Jordan is paid $12 per hour for mowing lawns and $14 per hour for planting gardens.

Let m represents the number of hours mowing lawns and g represents the number of hours planting gardens.

He can work a maximum of 40 hours per week, and would like to earn at least $250 this week.

Then, the system of the inequality becomes

m + g < 40

12m + 14g  > 250

3 0
3 years ago
MIDDLE SCHOOL MATH BRAINLEIST AND 5 STARS AS SOON AS YOU ANSWER!!!!!!!! PLEASE HELP AND THANKS SO MUCH IM SUPER GRATEFUL!!!!!!!!
gladu [14]

Answer:

Bottom prism: 126*11=1386    

Top Prism: 2*45=90

Total volume: 1386+90= 1746 cubic cm

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
11 times what give you 165
denis23 [38]
165 divided by 11 equals 15
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
15/40 in lowest term I need it so bad now
Vesnalui [34]

In order to reduce ANY fraction to lowest terms, find any common factors
of the numerator and denominator, and divide them both by it.  If they still
have a common factor, then divide them by it again.  Eventually, they won't
have any common factor except ' 1 ', and then you'll know that the fraction is
in lowest terms.

Do  15  and  40  have any common factors ?
Let's see . . .

The factors of  15  are  1,  3,  <em>5</em>, and  15 .
The factors of  40  are  1,  2,  4,<em>  5</em>,  8,  10,  20, and  40 .

Ah hah !  Do you see that ' <em>5</em> ' on both lists ?  That's a common factor.

So  15/40  is NOT in lowest terms.

Divide the numerator and denominator both by  5 :

       15 / 40  =<em>  3 / 8</em>

3  and  8  don't have any common factor except ' 1 '. 
So  3/8  is the same number as  15/40, but in lowest terms.


5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Tan^2 70° -sec^2 70°​
kipiarov [429]

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the value of tan² 70° -sec² 70°​.

We know that,

\sec^2\theta-\tan^2\theta=1 ...(1)

We can write the given expression as :

tan² 70° -sec² 70° = -(-tan² 70° +sec² 70°)

=-(sec² 70°-tan² 70°)

Using identity (1)

=-(1)

= -1

Hence, the value of the given expression is -1.

4 0
3 years ago
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