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3 years ago

A two digit number is written at random what is the probability that the number will be odd

Mathematics

1 answer:

leonid [27]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

So there are 90 2 digit numbers. There are 45 2 digit odd numbers.

The probability should be 50%

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P ( rolling a 5 or rolling a 4 ) on a die or fair number cube. Find the probability of these mutually exclusive events.

pentagon [3]

Answer: I believe it the probability of this would be 1/3.

Step-by-step explanation: This is mainly because if the chances of rolling a 5 or a 4 on a die or fair numbered cube, which contains 6 sides, then landing on 5 or 4 would be 2 out of the six chances it would land on those two numbers. Hope this helps!

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3 years ago

Wayne has a recipe that says to heat the oven to 160°C. Wayne evaluates the expression 1.8C + 32 when C= 160 to convert the temp

tekilochka [14]

1.8C+32. 1.8x25+32. 45+32

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3 years ago

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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Jobisdone [24]

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If X and Y are independent continuous positive random

Leni [432]

a) $Z=\frac XY$ has CDF

$F_Z(z)=P(Z\le z)=P(X\le Yz)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}P(X\le yz\mid Y=y)P(Y=y)\,\mathrm dy$

$F_Z(z)\displaystyle=\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}P(X\le yz)P(Y=y)\,\mathrm dy$

where the last equality follows from independence of $X,Y$ . In terms of the distribution and density functions of $X,Y$ , this is

$F_Z(z)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}F_X(yz)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

Then the density is obtained by differentiating with respect to $z$ ,

$f_Z(z)=\displaystyle\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dz}\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}F_X(yz)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}yf_X(yz)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

b) $Z=XY$ can be computed in the same way; it has CDF

$F_Z(z)=P\left(X\le\dfrac zY\right)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}P\left(X\le\frac zy\right)P(Y=y)\,\mathrm dy$

$F_Z(z)\displaystyle=\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}F_X\left(\frac zy\right)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

Differentiating gives the associated PDF,

$f_Z(z)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}\frac1yf_X\left(\frac zy\right)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

Assuming $X\sim\mathrm{Exp}(\lambda_x)$ and $Y\sim\mathrm{Exp}(\lambda_y)$ , we have

$f_{Z=\frac XY}(z)=\displaystyle\int_0^\infty y(\lambda_xe^{-\lambda_xyz})(\lambda_ye^{\lambda_yz})\,\mathrm dy$

$\implies f_{Z=\frac XY}(z)=\begin{cases}\frac{\lambda_x\lambda_y}{(\lambda_xz+\lambda_y)^2}&\text{for }z\ge0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$

and

$f_{Z=XY}(z)=\displaystyle\int_0^\infty\frac1y(\lambda_xe^{-\lambda_xyz})(\lambda_ye^{\lambda_yz})\,\mathrm dy$

$\implies f_{Z=XY}(z)=\lambda_x\lambda_y\displaystyle\int_0^\infty\frac{e^{-\lambda_x\frac zy-\lambda_yy}}y\,\mathrm dy$

I wouldn't worry about evaluating this integral any further unless you know about the Bessel functions.

6 0

3 years ago