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Katena32 [7]
2 years ago
6

The predictions of Rutherford's scattering formula failed to correspond with experimental data when the energy of the incoming a

lpha particles exceeded 32MeV. This can be explained by the fact that the predictions of the formula apply when the only force involved is the electromagnetic force and will break down if the incoming particles make contact with the nucleus. Use the fact that Rutherford's prediction ceases to be valid for alpha particles with an energy greater than 32MeV to estimate the radius r of the gold nucleus. I am doing something really silly. I keep getting 7.43*10^-31 which is off by a factor of 16. I need a detailed explaination so I can find out where I went wrong. I equated the KE = 5.12e-12 = k(79e^2/r)
Physics
1 answer:
Vera_Pavlovna [14]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The radius of the gold nucleus is 7.1x10⁻¹⁵m

Explanation:

The nearest distance is:

r=\frac{kze^{2} }{mpV^{2} } (eq. 1)

Where

z = atomic number of gold = 79

e = electron charge = 1.6x10⁻¹⁹C

k = electrostatic constant = 9x10⁹Nm²C²

energy of the particle = 32 MeV = 5.12x10⁻¹²J

At the potential energy is zero, all the energy will be kinetic energy:

E_{k} =\frac{1}{2} m V^{2}

Where

m = 4 mp = mass of proton

5.12x10^{-12} =\frac{1}{2} *4*m_{p}* V^{2} \\m_{p}* V^{2} = 2.56x10^{-12}

Replacing in equation 1

r=\frac{9x10^{9}*79*(1.6x10^{-19})^{2}   }{2.56x10^{-12} } =7.1x10^{-15} m

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A wire 6.60 m long with diameter of 2.05 mm has a resistance of 0.0310 Ω.
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

1.551×10^-8 Ωm

Explanation:

Resistivity of a material is expressed as shown;.

Resistivity = RA/l

R is the resistance of the material

A is the cross sectional area

l is the length of the wire.

Given;

R = 0.0310 Ω

A = πd²/4

A = π(2.05×10^-3)²/4

A = 0.000013204255/4

A = 0.00000330106375

A = 3.30×10^-6m

l = 6.60m

Substituting this values into the formula for calculating resistivity.

rho = 0.0310× 3.30×10^-6/6.60

rho = 1.023×10^-7/6.60

rho = 1.551×10^-8 Ωm

Hence the resistivity of the material is 1.551×10^-8 Ωm

6 0
2 years ago
V=xf-xi/t solve for t
irina [24]

Answer:

t=\frac{x_f-x_i}{v}

Explanation:

Starting from the equation:

v=\frac{x_f-x_i}{t}

First of all, let's multiply by t on both sides:

v\cdot t = \frac{x_f-x_i}{t}\cdot t \\vt = x_f - x_i

And then, let's divide by v on both sides:

\frac{vt}{v}=\frac{x_f-x_i}{v}\\t=\frac{x_f-x_i}{v}

So, finally

t=\frac{x_f-x_i}{v}

7 0
3 years ago
block with of mass m is at rest on horizontal frictionless surface at time t=0. A force given by F=Bt+C is applied horizontally
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

v_{2} =\frac{1}{2}

Explanation:

From the second law of Newton movement laws, we have:

F=m*a, and we know that a is the acceleration, which definition is:

a=\frac{dv}{dt}, so:

F=m*\frac{dv}{dt}\\\frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{F}{m}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}(t+1)}{4}=\frac{t+1}{8}

The next step is separate variables and integrate (the limits are at this way because at t=0 the block was at rest (v=0):

dv=\frac{1}{8}(t+1)dt\\\int\limits^{v_{2}}_0 \, dv=\int\limits^{2}_{0} {\frac{1}{8}(t+1)} \, dt

v_{2}=\frac{1}{8}*(\frac{t^{2}}{2}+t) (This is the indefinite integral), the definite one is:

v_{2}=\frac{1}{8}*(2+2)=\frac{1}{2}

3 0
3 years ago
Describe a situation when you might travel at a high velocity, but with low acceleration
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Reading a book in your warm, comfy seat ... in Row-27 of a
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3 years ago
What Do You Get When You Multiply An Object's mass times the acceleration?
emmasim [6.3K]

You get the net force acting on it ... the sum of the strengths and directions
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7 0
3 years ago
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