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3 years ago

How does wave energy impact the erosion of a rock?

1 answer:

34kurt3 years ago

7 0

Whenever these waves reach the shoreline, these slow down. The first parts of the shoreline that waves meet are the headlands. This is the part of the land that projects into the water. The slowing waves bend toward the headlands, which concentrates the waves' energy. A huge amount of energy is released when waves crash into <span>headlands, causing the land to erode.</span>

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I would love to stretch a wire from our house to the Shop so I can 'call' my husband in for meals. The wire could be tightened t

dezoksy [38]

Note: I'm not sure what do you mean by "weight 0.05 kg/L". I assume it means the mass per unit of length, so it should be "0.05 kg/m".

Solution:
The fundamental frequency in a standing wave is given by
$f= \frac{1}{2L} \sqrt{ \frac{T}{m/L} }$
where L is the length of the string, T the tension and m its mass. If we plug the data of the problem into the equation, we find
$f= \frac{1}{2 \cdot 24 m} \sqrt{ \frac{240 N}{0.05 kg/m} }=1.44 Hz$

The wavelength of the standing wave is instead twice the length of the string:
$\lambda=2 L= 2 \cdot 24 m=48 m$

So the speed of the wave is
$v=\lambda f = (48 m)(1.44 Hz)=69.1 m/s$

And the time the pulse takes to reach the shop is the distance covered divided by the speed:
$t= \frac{L}{v}= \frac{24 m}{69.1 m/s}=0.35 s$

7 0

3 years ago

0.22 L of pancake syrup has a mass of 33 g.

katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

a. 150 g/L

b. 75 g

c. 120 mL

Explanation:

a. 33g/0.22L=150 g/L

b. 33g/0.22L=150 g/L

150 g/L*0.5L=75g

c. 0.22L/33g=0.006667L/g

0.006667L/g*18g=0.12L

0.12L*1000=120mL

6 0

2 years ago

Diego is trying to lift a piano to the second floor of his house. Diego uses a pulley system and gives a big lift to the piano.T

andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:he to

Explanation:

3 0

2 years ago

A particle of mass m collides with a second particle of mass m. Before the collision, the first particle is moving in the x-dire

oee [108]

Answer:

a) v, v

b) 2mv^2

c) Elastic collion

Explanation:

(a) The velocity of the second particle after the collision is (v2x,v2y)=(v,−v). From momentum conservation in x-direction

Here x, y represent direction.They are not variable. 1 and 2 represent before and after.

2vm=v1xm+v2xm, we find v1x=v.

From momentum conservation in y-direction

0 =v1ym+v2ym, we findv1y=v.

(b) By energy conservation principle

Before: K=1/2m(2v)^2=2mv^2.

After: K=1/2m(v^2(1x)+v^2(1y))+12m(v22x+v22y)=2mv^2

6 0

3 years ago

675 km equals how much cm ?

irga5000 [103]

KHDMDCM.
Now go from Kilometer to Centimeter: 5.
Move the decimal 5 places to the right: 67,500,000 centimeters.
Hope this helps :)

7 0

3 years ago