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LenKa [72]
3 years ago
8

The option gpe is best when the contracted volume is below 3750037500 units ​(enter your response as a whole​ number).the option

fms is best when the contracted volume is between 3750037500 and nothing units ​(enter your responses as whole​ numbers).
Mathematics
1 answer:
frozen [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Find attached missing part of the question:

The option gpe is best when the contracted volume is below 31250  units

The option fms is best when the contracted volume is between 31,250 and 230,000  units ​

The option DM is best when contracted volume is above 230,000 units

Step-by-step explanation:

let x represent the volume produced in each of the three options:

Total cost(TC) =fixed cost+(variable per unit*x)

for general purpose equipment:

TC=125,000+18x equation 1

for flexible manufacturing system

TC=250,000+14x equation 2

for dedicated machine

TC=480,000+13x equation 3

if we set equations 1 and 2 together

125,000+18x=250,000+14x

If we equate equations 2 and 3 together

250,000+14x=480,000+13x

14x-13x=480,000-250,000

x=230,000

18x-14x=250,000-125,000

4x=125,000

divide both sides y 4

x=125,000/4=31250

Download xlsx
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tia_tia [17]
Very complicated problem, but thank goodness I have too much time and am a nerd.

Basically model 1st account as so.
Fv=pv(1+I)^N
Fv future value
Pv present value
I interest
N number years
So first equation is interest earned after 3 years
Y=5000(1+0.023)^3
Y=5353 (rounded up)
So we know that the interest earned is 5353-5000 which is 353.

Now Ronisha (clearly the name of a future investment genius) invests these 353$ in a new account.
Now remember we’re not solving for FV we’re cause we’re given that: 55.2$
However this is the interest earned not the future value. So if interest earned is fv - pv and we know pv
Fv - 353 = 55.2
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So now we reuse the formula
408.2 = 353(1+0.032)^x
Now just solve for x:
First divide both sides by 353
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Remember the log rule that states x=b^y is same as y=logb(x)
So using the same logic:
X= log1.032(1.156)
Use some kind of calculator for that where you can adjust log base. But you basically get:
X= 4.602
So Ronisha has to basically invest 5 years or 4.6 years which is 4 years and 7 months.

Omg nevermind, wait it’s simple interest….
Sorry here’s the simple solution. My bad, but I worked so hard on the top part I don’t want to delete it.
I=prt
Interest = principal * rate * time
I= 5000(0.023)(3)=345
Then just do the same but plug 55.2 for I
55.2 = 345(0.032)t
Now solve for t
55.2 = 11.04t
t= 5

As you can see, similar logic where ultimately it takes 5 years. But this “genius” Ronisha should’ve just done compounding interest (my first calculation) and gotten it done in 4.6 years. Almost 5 months faster.
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