Answer:
16
Step-by-step explanation: because 24g reverts 40f so we have to subtract them
and get the answer
Answer:
x = 33
Step-by-step explanation:
If you have any questions about the way I solved it, don't hesitate to ask :)

notice above, all we did, was isolate the "recurring part" to the right of the decimal point, so the repeating 09, ended up on the right of it.
now, let's say, "x" is a variable whose value is the recurring part, therefore then

now, the idea behind the recurring part is that, we then, once we have it all to the right of the dot, we multiply it by some power of 10, so that it moves it "once" to the left of it, well, the recurring part is 09, is two digits, so let's multiply it by 100 then,

and you can check that in your calculator.
Answer:
The number is -1
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation for the first part is (2n+7)2. This is because "twice a number" is 2n and "7 is added" will make it 2n+7. The "sum is multiplied by two" Is multiplying everything by two. This will make it (2n+7)
The second part is -8n+2. Since a number is multiplied by negative eight it will be -8n. Then it is added by two.
Both equation equal each other the overall equation will be (2n+7)2=-8n+2
You will distribute. making it 4n+14=-8n+2
Add 8n to both sides making it 12n+14=2
subtract 14 from both sides making it 12n=-12
Divide both sides by 12 . making it number=-1
Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables
with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that
We need to proof that
by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:


The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

And for the variance of Z we can do this:
![Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29_%20%3D%20E%28N%29%20Var%28X%29%20%2B%20Var%20%28N%29%20%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20)
![Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5Bp%281-p%29%5D%20%2B%20Mq%281-q%29%20p%5E2)
And if we take common factor
we got:
![Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5B%281-p%29%20%2B%20%281-q%29p%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-p%20%2Bp-pq%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-pq%5D)
And as we can see then we can conclude that 