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Nataliya [291]
3 years ago
11

Please help me on this!

Physics
1 answer:
strojnjashka [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Am not sure

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In the classic 1960s science-fiction comic book The Atom, a physicist discovers a basketball-sized meteorite (about 12 cm in rad
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A point charge with a charge q1 = 2.30 μC is held stationary at the origin. A second point charge with a charge q2 = -5.00 μC mo
Alla [95]

Answer:

W = 2.74 J

Explanation:

The work done by the charge on the origin to the moving charge is equal to the difference in the potential energy of the charges.

This is the electrostatic equivalent of the work-energy theorem.

W = \Delta U = U_2 - U_1

where the potential energy is defined as follows

U = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}

Let's first calculate the distance 'r' for both positions.

r_1 = \sqrt{(x_1 - x_0)^2 + (y_1 - y_0)^2} = \sqrt{(0.170 - 0)^2 + (0 - 0)^2} = 0.170~m\\r_2 = \sqrt{(x_2 - x_0)^2 + (y_2 - y_0)^2} = \sqrt{(0.250 - 0)^2 + (0.250 - 0)^2} = 0.353~m

Now, we can calculate the potential energies for both positions.

U_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_1^2} = \frac{(8.99\times 10^9)(2.3\times 10^{-6})(-5\times 10^{-6})}{(0.170)^2} = -3.57~J\\U_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_2^2} = \frac{(8.99\times 10^9)(2.3\times 10^{-6})(-5\times 10^{-6})}{(0.3530)^2} = -0.829~J

Finally, the total work done on the moving particle can be calculated.

W = U_2 - U_1 = (-0.829) - (-3.57) = 2.74~J

4 0
3 years ago
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An electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 4.0 x 10^18 Hz. What is the wavelength of the wave?
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

7.5 × 10^-11 m

Explanation:

Hope this helps !

3 0
3 years ago
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Suppose you observe two stars and you know they have the same luminosity. If one star is twice as far away as the other, the mor
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Answer:

The farther star will appear 4 times fainter than the star that is near to the observer.

Explanation:

Since it is given that the luminosity of the 2 stars is same thus they radiate the same energy per unit time

Consider a spherical wave front of energy 'E' that leaves both the stars (Both radiate 'E' as they have same luminosity)

This Energy is spread over the whole surface area of sphere Thus when the wave front is at a distance 'r' the energy per unit surface area is given by

e_{1}=\frac{E}{4\pi r^{2}}

For the star that is twice away from the earth the distance is '2r' thus we will receive an energy given by

e_{2}=\frac{E}{4\pi (2r)^{2}}=\frac{E}{8\pi r^{2}}=\frac{e_{1}}{4}

Hence we sense it as 4 times fainter than the nearer star.

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that an asteroid traveling straight toward the center of the earth were to collide with our planet at the equator and bu
vlada-n [284]

Answer:

\frac{1}{10}M

Explanation:

To apply the concept of <u>angular momentum conservation</u>, there should be no external torque before and after

As the <u>asteroid is travelling directly towards the center of the Earth</u>, after impact ,it <u>does not impose any torque on earth's rotation,</u> So angular momentum of earth is conserved

⇒I_{1} \times W_{1} =I_{2} \times W_{2}

  • I_{1} is the moment of interia of earth before impact
  • W_{1} is the angular velocity of earth about an axis passing through the center of earth before impact
  • I_{2} is moment of interia of earth and asteroid system
  • W_{2} is the angular velocity of earth and asteroid system about the same axis

let  W_{1}=W

since \text{Time period of rotation}∝\frac{1}{\text{Angular velocity}}

⇒ if time period is to increase by 25%, which is \frac{5}{4} times, the angular velocity decreases 25% which is \frac{4}{5}  times

therefore W_{1} = \frac{4}{5} \times W_{1}

I_{1}=\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}(moment of inertia of solid sphere)

where M is mass of earth

           R is radius of earth

I_{2}=\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+M_{1}\times R^{2}

(As given asteroid is very small compared to earth, we assume it be a particle compared to earth, therefore by parallel axis theorem we find its moment of inertia with respect to axis)

where M_{1} is mass of asteroid

⇒ \frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2} \times W_{1}=}(\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+ M_{1}\times R^{2})\times(\frac{4}{5} \times W_{1})

\frac{1}{2} \times M\times R^{2}= (\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+ M_{1}\times R^{2})

M_{1}\times R^{2}= \frac{1}{10} \times M\times R^{2}

⇒M_{1}=}\frac{1}{10} \times M

3 0
3 years ago
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