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Flura [38]
2 years ago
6

If the velocity of an object is zero at one instant, what is true about the acceleration of that object

Physics
1 answer:
Charra [1.4K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I. The acceleration could be positive.

II. The acceleration could be zero.

III. The acceleration could be negative.

Explanation:

Velocity can be defined as the rate of change in displacement (distance) with time. Velocity is a vector quantity and as such it has both magnitude and direction.

Mathematically, velocity is given by the equation;

Velocity = \frac{distance}{time}

If the velocity of an object is zero at one instant, then the acceleration of that object may have the following characteristics;

I. The acceleration could be positive.

II. The acceleration could be zero.

III. The acceleration could be negative.

In physics, acceleration can be defined as the rate of change of the velocity of an object with respect to time.

This simply means that, acceleration is given by the subtraction of initial velocity from the final velocity all over time.

Mathematically, acceleration is given by the equation;

Acceleration (a) = \frac{final \; velocity  -  initial \; velocity}{time}

a = \frac{v  -  u}{t}

Where,

a is acceleration measured in ms^{-2}

v and u is final and initial velocity respectively, measured in ms^{-1}

t is time measured in seconds.

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2 years ago
A car sitting at a red light begins to accelerate at 2.0 m/s2 when the light turns green. It continues with this acceleration un
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

d = 820 m

Explanation:

here we know that car starts from rest and continue to accelerate till it will reach to maximum speed of 20 m/s

so we will have

v_f - v_i = at

20 - 0 = 2t

t = 10 s

so car will accelerate till t = 10 then it will move with uniform speed

so the distance moved by the car till it accelerates is given as

d = \frac{1}{2}at^2

d = \frac{1}{2}(2)(10^2)

d_1 = 100 m

now it will move with uniform speed for next 36 s

so we have

d_2 = 20(36) = 720 m

so total distance moved by the car is given as

d = d_1 + d_2

d = 100 + 720

d = 820 m

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
If the depth of water in a well is 10m, what is the pressure exerted by it the bottom of the well ? ( Use g = 10 m/s2)
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Answer:

The precise answer depends on the density and therefore the temperature of the water, but we can obtain a reasonable approximation by assuming that the density of the water is 1000 kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m³).

Since the depth of the water in the well is 10 m, the volume of water directly above an area A of a square meters (m²) at the bottom of the well is 10×a m³.

Since the density of the water is 1,000 kg/m³, the mass of water directly above area A is (1,000 kg/m³) × (10×a m³) = (1000×10×a kg) = 10,000×a kg.

Since g = 9.8 m/s², the force of gravity acting on the water directly above area A is (9.8 m/s²) × (10,000×a kg) = 9.8×10,000×a N (newtons) = 98,000×a N.

So the pressure of water acting on area A is (98,000×a N)/(a m²) = (98,000×a)/a N/m² = 98,000 pascals (pa). And since A could be any given area at the bottom of the well, this is the pressure at any point at the bottom of the well.

So the pressure at the bottom of the well is 98,000 pascals (or 98,000/101,325 standard atmospheres = 560/579 atmospheres ~ 0.967 standard atmospheres).

Please comment below if you have any questions.

7 0
3 years ago
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