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LUCKY_DIMON [66]
3 years ago
13

Fig. 2.1 shows a train

Physics
1 answer:
Vitek1552 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\mathrm{(a)\:}32,000,000\:\mathrm{Ns},\\\mathrm{(b)\:}390,000\:\mathrm{N}

Explanation:

The impulse-momentum theorem states the impulse on an object is equal to the change in momentum of that object. Momentum is given by p=mv. Since mass is constant, the train's change in momentum is:

\Delta p=m\Delta v=750,000\cdot42=31,500,000=\fbox{$32,000,000\:\mathrm{Ns}$}(two significant figures).

Impulse is also given as \Delta p = F\Delta t, where F is the average force applied and \Delta t is change in time. Since t is given as 80\mathrm{s}, we have the following equation:

F\Delta t=\Delta p\\\\F=\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t},\\\\F=\frac{31,500,000}{80},\\\\F=393,750=\fbox{$390,000\:\mathrm{N}$}(two significant figures).

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