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lilavasa [31]
2 years ago
6

A wet electrode can cause arc blow ?

Engineering
1 answer:
irga5000 [103]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

yes it can

Explanation:

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"Write a statement that outputs variable numItems. End with a newline. Program will be tested with different input values."
kirill [66]

Answer:

The solution code is written in Java.

System.out.println(numItems);

Explanation:

Java <em>println() </em>method can be used to display any string on the console terminal. We can use <em>println()</em> method to output the value held by variable <em>numItems.</em> The <em>numItems </em>is passed as the input parameter to <em>println()</em> and this will output the value of <em>numItems</em> to console terminal and at the same time the output with be ended with a newline automatically.  

6 0
3 years ago
What type of footwear protects your toes from falling objects and being crushed?
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:Steel toe

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The 1000-lb elevator is hoisted by the pulley system and motor M. The motor exerts a constant force of 500 lb on the cable. The
klemol [59]

The power that must be supplied to the motor is 136 hp

<u>Explanation:</u>

Given-

weight of the elevator, m = 1000 lb

Force on the table, F = 500 lb

Distance, s = 27 ft

Efficiency, ε = 0.65

Power  = ?

According to the equation of motion:

F = ma

3(500) - 1000 = \frac{1000}{32.2} * a

a = 16.1 ft/s²

We know,

v^2 - u^2 = 2a (S - So)\\\\v^2 - (0)^2 = 2 * 16.1 (27-0)\\\\v = 29.48m/s

To calculate the output power:

Pout = F. v

Pout = 3 (500) * 29.48

Pout = 44220 lb.ft/s

As efficiency is given and output power is known, we can calculate the input power.

ε = Pout / Pin

0.65 = 44220 / Pin

Pin = 68030.8 lb.ft/s

Pin = 68030.8 / 500 hp

     = 136 hp

Therefore, the power that must be supplied to the motor is 136 hp

5 0
3 years ago
2.
den301095 [7]
Jae pain seems the most off
4 0
3 years ago
A company buys a machine for $12,000, which it agrees to pay for in five equal annual payments, beginning one year after the dat
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

$7,778.35

Explanation:

At year 3, the final payment of the remaining balance is equal to the present worth P of the last three payments.

First, calculate the uniform payments A:

A = 12000(A/P, 4%, 5)

= 12000(0.2246) = 2695.2  (from the calculator)

Then take the last three payments as its own cash flow.

To calculate the new P:

P = 2695.2 + 2695.2(P/A, 4%, 2) = 2695.2 + 2695.2(1.886) = 7778.35

Therefore, the final payment is $7,778.35

4 0
3 years ago
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