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Ganezh [65]
3 years ago
15

What is 7/8 + 1/2 on a ruler

Engineering
2 answers:
Ad libitum [116K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

11/8

Explanation:

7/8+4/8=11/8 if you want it on a ruler you need to go online and type fraction to decimal converter and put in 11/8 into a decimal

svp [43]3 years ago
3 0
11/8 or 1.375 as a decimal
You might be interested in
Determine the following parameters for the water having quality x=0.7 at 200 kPa:
ra1l [238]

Solution :

Given :

Water have quality x = 0.7 (dryness fraction) at around pressure of 200 kPa

The phase diagram is provided below.

a). The phase is a standard mixture.

b). At pressure, p = 200 kPa, T = $T_{saturated}$

   Temperature = 120.21°C

c). Specific volume

  $v_{f}= 0.001061, \ \ v_g=0.88578 \ m^3/kg$

  $v_x=v_f+x(v_g-v_f)$

       $=0.001061+0.7(0.88578-0.001061)$

       $=0.62036 \ m^3/kg$

d). Specific energy (u_x)

    $u_f=504.5 \ kJ/kg, \ \ u_{fg}=2024.6 \ kJ/kg$

   $u_x=504.5 + 0.7(2024.6)$

         $=1921.72 \ kJ/kg$

e). Specific enthalpy $(h_x)$

   At $h_f = 504.71, \ \ h_{fg} = 2201.6$

   h_x=504.71+(0.7\times 2201.6)

        $= 2045.83 \ kJ/kg$

f). Enthalpy at m = 0.5 kg

  $H=mh_x$

       $= 0.5 \times 2045.83$

       = 1022.91 kJ

7 0
3 years ago
A manometer containing a fluid with a density of 60 lbm/ft3 is attached to a tank filled with air. If the gage pressure of the a
8090 [49]

Answer:

The fluid level difference in the manometer arm = 22.56 ft.

Explanation:

Assumption: The fluid in the manometer is incompressible, that is, its density is constant.

The fluid level difference between the two arms of the manometer gives the gage pressure of the air in the tank.

And P(gage) = ρgh

ρ = density of the manometer fluid = 60 lbm/ft³

g = acceleration due to gravity = 32.2 ft/s²

ρg = 60 × 32.2 = 1932 lbm/ft²s²

ρg = 1932 lbm/ft²s² × 1lbf.s²/32.2lbm.ft = 60 lbf/ft³

h = fluid level difference between the two arms of the manometer = ?

P(gage) = 9.4 psig = 9.4 × 144 = 1353.6 lbf/ft²

1353.6 = ρg × h = 60 lbf/ft³ × h

h = 1353.6/60 = 22.56 ft

A diagrammatic representation of this setup is presented in the attached image.

Hope this helps!

5 0
3 years ago
A 0.25in diameter steel rod BC is securely attached between two identical 1in diameter copper rods (AB and CD). Find the torque
Helen [10]

Answer:

Tmax= 46.0 lb-in

Explanation:

Given:

- The diameter of the steel rod BC d1 = 0.25 in

- The diameter of the copper rod AB and CD d2 = 1 in

- Allowable shear stress of steel τ_s = 15ksi

- Allowable shear stress of copper τ_c = 12ksi

Find:

Find the torque T_max

Solution:

- The relation of allowable shear stress is given by:

                             τ = 16*T / pi*d^3

                             T = τ*pi*d^3 / 16

- Design Torque T for Copper rod:

                             T_c = τ_c*pi*d_c^3 / 16

                             T_c = 12*1000*pi*1^3 / 16

                             T_c = 2356.2 lb.in

- Design Torque T for Steel rod:

                             T_s = τ_s*pi*d_s^3 / 16

                             T_s = 15*1000*pi*0.25^3 / 16

                             T_s = 46.02 lb.in

- The design torque must conform to the allowable shear stress for both copper and steel. The maximum allowable would be:

                             T = min ( 2356.2 , 46.02 )

                             T = 46.02 lb-in

6 0
3 years ago
A center-point bending test was performed on a 2 in. x d in. wood lumber according to ASTM D198 procedure with a span of 4 ft an
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

3.03 INCHES

Explanation:

According to ASTM D198 ;

Modulus of rupture = ( M / I ) * y  ----- ( 1 )

M ( bending moment ) = R * length of span / 2

                                     = (120 * 10^3 ) * 48 / 2 = 288 * 10^4 Ib-in

I ( moment of inertia ) = bd^3 / 12

                                    = ( 2 )*( d )^3  / 12 =  2d^3 / 12

b = 2 in ,  d = ?

length of span = 4 * 12 = 48 inches

R = P  / 2 =  240 * 10^3 / 2 =   120 * 10^3 Ib

y ( centroid distance ) = d / 2  inches

back to equation ( 1 )

( M / I ) * y

940.3 ksi = ( 288 * 10^4 / 2d^3 / 12 ) * d / 2

                = ( 288 * 10^4 * 12 ) / 2d^3 )  * d / 2

940300  = 34560000* d / 4d^3

4d^3 ( 940300 ) = 34560000 d  ( divide both sides with d )

4d^2 = 34560000 / 940300

d^2 = 9.188   ∴ Value of d ≈ 3.03 in

8 0
3 years ago
Describe at least one way you take advantage or could take advantage of each of the different forms of energy
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

Kinetic energy can be used to develop electric energy which can be used as electricity.

Explanation:

The kinetic energy can be harnessed; much like some hydro power technologies harness water movement. A way to convert this kinetic energy into electric energy is through piezoelectric. By applying a mechanical stress to a piezoelectric crystal or material an electric current will be created and can be harvested.

Kinetic energy is also generated by the human body when it is in motion. Studies have also been done using kinetic energy and then converting it to other types of energy, which is then used to power everything from flashlights to radios and more.

4 0
2 years ago
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